ANSWER
See attachment
EXPLANATION
The given inequality is

This implies that,

Multiply both sides of the second inequality by -1 and reverse the inequality sign.

The graphical solution to this inequality is shown in the attachment.
The derivative of 1/logx is With the chain rule.
1log(x)=log(x)−1 is ,= -1xlog(x)2 .
The by-product of logₐ x (log x with base a) is 1/(x ln a). Here, the thrilling issue is that we have "ln" withinside the by-product of "log x". Note that "ln" is referred to as the logarithm (or) it's miles a logarithm with base "e".
The by-product of 1/log x is -1/x(log x)^2. Note that 1/logx is the reciprocal of log.

Read more about derivatives;
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3.12 = 3 4/33 (<span>3.12 repeating)</span>
hope it helps
Answer:
Fun? i like the game we play in school with each other.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
10
Step-by-step explanation:
because 40 can go into 400 ten times
also if you do it on long division you will do 10 times 40 is 400