All categories

4 years ago

Determine if each graph below represents a function. Then state its domain and range.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Bas_tet [7]4 years ago

5 0

Answer: None of those are functions

Step-by-step explanation: They all fail the vertical line test. x values do not repeat. Those intersect more than one pint on the relationship if you were to take a line and move it across the graph.

You might be interested in

What is the slope of the line?

Zolol [24]

Answer:

$-\frac{3}{2}$

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find 2 points on the graph where the line intersects.

For this example, let's use (2, -1) and (4, -4). Find the slope using the rise over run equation. See below:

$Slope = \frac{rise}{run} = \frac{(2, -1)}{(4, -4)} = \frac{y2 - y1}{x2 - x1} = \frac{(-4 + 1)}{(4-2)} = -\frac{3}{2}$

7 0

3 years ago

Anybody can help me show the work on this problem ?

swat32

this is the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

5x=75

22+5x=97

11y-5=106

7y+13=83

to conclude it all adds up to 360

360=83+106+97+75

5 0

3 years ago

There are 200 paperweights in a box. The mass of each paperweight is 0.085 kilogram. The mass of the empty box is 560 grams. Wha

serious [3.7K]

17560grams.

each paperweight is 85 grams. (a kilogram is 1000 grams)

85*200= 17,000
17,000+560=17,560

7 0

3 years ago

What is 2 1/6 plus 3 and 1/4

Alex777 [14]

5 5/12

(2+3) 1/6 + 1/4=

5 5/12

5 0

3 years ago

What is the definite integral of log (tan x) with range from 90 to 0

nasty-shy [4]

Substituting x with π/2 - x gives the equivalent integral,

$\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan(x))\,\mathrm dx=-\int_{\frac\pi2}^0\log(\cot(x))(-\mathrm dx)=\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot(x))\,\mathrm dx$

So if we let J denote the value of the integral, we have

$J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan (x))\,\mathrm dx$

$J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot (x))\,\mathrm dx$

$\implies 2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\left(\log(\tan (x))+\log(\cot (x))\right)\,\mathrm dx$

Condensing the logarithms, we have

log(tan(x)) + log(cot(x)) = log(tan(x) cot(x)) = log(1) = 0

since cot(x) = 1/tan(x), which means

$2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}0\,\mathrm dx=0$

and so the original integral has a value of J = 0.

3 0

3 years ago