Answer: you can rent the kayak for 5.3 hours
Step-by-step explanation:
Total amount of money that you have to spend at the beach is 50.
A kayak cost 5 per hour to rent. This means that if you rent the Kayak for X hours, the amount that you will spend would be 5×x = 5x. I buy lunch for 8.50. I want to save 15 for food later. This means that total amount of money spent is the sum of money spent in renting the kayak and buying of lunch.
Total amount spent = 5x + 8.50
Total amount spent + Total amount that you want to save = Total amount of money that you have to spend at the beach. Therefore
5x + 8.50 + 15 = 50 - 15 - 8.5 = 26.5
x = 26.5/5 = 5.3
<span>angle for JL and KL is <L
answer is C. L</span>
Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
2 times the difference of a number and 1 = 4 plus that number
In other to express the word problem Mathematically ; let the number = x
2(x - 1) = 4 + x
Expand
2x - 2 = 4 + x
Collect like terms
2x - x = 4 + 2
x = 6
Hence, the number is 6
5 children so you have 2^5=32 possibilities to "assign" genders
P(3 girls):
how many possibilities are there to "assign" the 3 girl-genders to the 5 children? the first girl has 5 possibilities then the next 4, 3 -> 5*4*3=60
but these possibilities include orders of assigned genders, while children 1-5 might differ the gender "girl" is always the same so we have the remove the orderings of the 3 girl-gender assignments which is 3*2*1=6
if we divide 60/6 we get 10 possibilities to have 3 girls, so what is the resulting chance? the 10 possibilities divided by the total 32 possibilities: 10/32=5/16=P(3 girls)=P(2 boys)
this is a bit of lengthy way of saying "use the binomial coefficient" equation/explaining it a bit which is (n!)/(k!(n-k)!) with n=5, k=3:
5*4*3*2*1/((3*2*1)*(2*1))=
5*4*3*2/(3*2*2)=
5*4*3*2/(3*4)=
5*2=
10 possibilities again
P(girls>=4)=P(boys<=1)=P(boys=1)+P(boys=0)
(or P(girls=4)+P(girls=5))
P(boys=0) is the easy case: simply multiply the chance of getting a girl 5 times: (1/2)^5=1/32
P(boys=1)= again the binomial coefficient with n=5 and k=1:
5*4*3*2*1/((1)*(4*3*2*1))=
5*4*3*2/(4*3*2)=
5 possibilities
so the P(boys=0)=1 possibility + P(boys=1)=5 possibilities totals to 6 possibilities
again the chance is the 6 possibilities divided by all 32 possibilities: 6/32=3/16
P(alternate gender starting with boy): when thinking about the possibilities then there is only a single way to build that order: bgbgb, so one possibility
knowing there is only one way we already know P(alternate...)=1/32 by again dividing by the total amount of possibilities
the alternative way would be to multiply P(boy)*P(girl)*P(boy)*P(girl)*P(boy)=(1/2)^5= 1/32 again