Rectangle A'B'C'D' is the image of rectangle ABCD after it

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nutka1998 [239]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

a, b, c, e

Step-by-step explanation:

the math

maxonik [38]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

A,B,D,E OUR THE FOUR ANSMWER

Step-by-step explanation:

Rectangle A'B'C'D' is the image of rectangle ABCD after it has been translated according to the rule T–4, 3(x, y).

On a coordinate plane, a rectangles has points A prime (negative 5, 4), B prime (3, 4), C prime (3, 1), and D prime (negative 5, 1).

Which points are vertices of the pre-image, rectangle ABCD? Select four options.

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Answer all 3 for brainliest

fiasKO [112]

Answer:

7.) 53.38

8.) 18.84

9.) 87.92

Step-by-step explanation:

7.)

For the first question, we can see that the diameter is given. So, we will want to divide that diameter by 2 to get the radius. 17 ÷ 2 = 8.5.

The formula for finding the circumference is 2 × π × 8.5

2 × 3.14(π) = 6.28.

6.28 × 8.5 = 53.38

8.)

For the second question, we can see that the radius is now given to us which is 3ft.

The formula for finding the circumference is 2 × π × 3

2 × 3.14(π) = 6.28.

6.28 × 3 = 18.84

9.)

For the third question the raduis is also given to us, which is 14 in.

The formula for finding the circumference is 2 × π × 14.

2 × 3.14(π) = 6.28.

6.28 × 14 = 87.92

<em>-kiniwih426</em>

7 0

2 years ago

According to a 2018 survey by Bankrate, 20% of adults in the United States save nothing for retirement (CNBC website). Suppose t

nalin [4]

Answer:

0.5981 = 59.81% probability that three or less of the selected adults have saved nothing for retirement

Step-by-step explanation:

For each adult, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they save nothing for retirement, or they save something. The probability of an adult saving nothing for retirement is independent of any other adult. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$