Answer:
The resistors will be in parallel to produce a net resistance of 4ohm and current in 20 ohm resistor will be 0.5A and 5ohm resistor will be 2A.
Explanation:
We are given 10 voltage power source and we have two Resistors with resistance of 20 ohm and 5ohm.
We need to find the orientation in which these two resistors would be arranged so that the circuit could get a current of 2.5Ampere.
Using ohm's law we have
V = I*R
V= voltage
I= current
R= resistance
10 = 2.5*R
R = 10/2.5 = 4ohm
that means we need a total of 4ohm resistance from these two resistors.
since the net Resistance(4ohm) is lower than the smallest resistance(5ohm) available that means the orientation of the resistors will be in parallel.

R(net) =4ohm
Now the orientation of the resistors are in parallel so the current will be divided.
we know that the current will divide in opposite manner the arm which provides more resistance less current will flow from there and vice versa.
We know that the voltage in parallel remains same
In 20 ohm resistance
again using ohms law
V = i1*R1
10 = i1*20
i1 = 0.5A
in 5ohm resistor
V=i2*R2
10 = I2*5
i2 =2A
and i1+i2 = 0.5+2= 2.5A which means our calculation is correct.
Therefore the resistors will be in parallel to produce a net resistance of 4ohm and current in 20 ohm resistor will be 0.5A and 5ohm resistor will be 2A.
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
This is the step by step explanation to the above question:
![v_i = v [ f_L *(v - v_b) - f_s*(v + v_b)] / [f_L * (v - v_b) + f_s*(v +v_b)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=v_i%20%3D%20v%20%5B%20f_L%20%2A%28v%20-%20v_b%29%20-%20f_s%2A%28v%20%2B%20v_b%29%5D%20%2F%20%5Bf_L%20%2A%20%28v%20-%20v_b%29%20%2B%20f_s%2A%28v%20%2Bv_b%29%5D)
= v * (83.1 * (v-4.3) - 80.7 ( v+4.3))/ [83.1 *(v - 4.3) + 80.7*(v + 4.3)]
v = 344 m/s
vi = 344 * ( 83.1* (344-4.3) - 80.7*(344+4.3) ) / (83.1 *(344 - 4.3) + 80.7*(344 + 4.3))
= 0.74 m/s
Answer:
Usually the coefficient of friction remains unchanged
Explanation:
The coefficient of friction should in the majority of cases, remain constant no matter what your normal force is. When you apply a greater normal force, the frictional force increases, and your coefficient of friction stays the same. Here's another way to think about it: because the force of friction is equal to the normal force times the coefficient of friction, friction is increased when normal force is increased.
Plus, the coefficient of friction is a property of the materials being "rubbed", and this property usually does not depend on the normal force.
Answer:
8 N
Explanation:
Using the equation F=ma (F: force/ m: mass in kg/ a: acceleration),
F = (800/1000)(10)
F = 8 N