Answer:
65%
Explanation:
Calculation to determine its predetermined overhead rate for the next period should be:
Using this formula
OH rate = Estimated overhead next period/direct labor
Let plug in the formula
OH rate = $65,000/$100,000
OH rate = 65%
Therefore If CWN bases applied overhead on direct labor cost, its predetermined overhead rate for the next period should be: 65%
Answer:
"System administrators" is the right approach.
Explanation:
- The system administrator seems to be an entity that maintains or operates a multi-standard technology environment and ensuring that Its resources and operating structures operate consistently and optimally.
- It has been used throughout the broad organization to identify each administrator concerned for such a specialized IT system, including one which services servers.
Answer:
Apple Photography, Inc.
Based on this information, the balance in the cash account at the end of January would be:_____.
b) $12,115.
Explanation:
a) Cash Account
Common Stock $13,600
Insurance (2,200)
Service Revenue 5,800)
Rent (1,600)
Office equipment (3,200)
Utilities (285)
Balance $12,115
b) Apple Photography, Inc had a balance in the cash account at the end of January of $12,115 which was the difference between the cash inflows and cash outflows during the month. The inflows represented cash received by Apple Photography from the owners and customers and the cash paid for running the business.
Answer:
The correct answer is $907.76.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
1¥ = 82.54$
1£ = 132.03¥
Convert pounds to us dollars= £ ÷ $ = £132.03 ÷ $82.54
= 1.60$ ÷ £
Mean, 1£ = 1.6$
She has £567.35 .
After converting the pound into the dollar, she will receive = £567.35 × $1.60
= $907.76
Hence, she receive $907.76 if she sells the pounds.
Answer:
A) 5.22 percent
Explanation:
The Pretax cost of debt is the Yield to maturity (YTM) of bond.
Using a financial calculator , you can solve for the YTM with the following inputs;
Face value ; FV = 1000
Maturity of bond; N = 15
Annual coupon payment; PMT = coupon rate * Face value = 6%*1000 = 60
Current price; PV = $1,080
then compute annual interest rate; CPT I/Y = 5.22%
