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Goryan [66]
3 years ago
15

The entry to convert from the initial value method to the equity method usually involves a debit to Investment in Subsidiary acc

ount and a credit to what account?Subsidiary's end of the year Retained EarningsParent's end of the year Retained EarningsSubsidiary's beginning of the year Retained EarningsParent's beginning of the year Retained EarningsNo entry is needed
Business
1 answer:
Nutka1998 [239]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Parent's beginning of the year Retained Earnings

Explanation:

"The equity method is an accounting technique used by a company to record the profits earned through its investment in another company. With the equity method of accounting, the investor company reports the revenue earned by the other company on its income statement, in an amount proportional to the percentage of its equity investment in the other company.

When the investor has a significant influence over the operating and financial results of the investee, it can directly affect the value of the investor's investment. The investor records its initial investment in the second company's stock as an asset at historical cost. Under the equity method, the investment's value is periodically adjusted to reflect the changes in value due to the investor's share in the company's income or losses. Adjustments are also made when dividends are paid out to shareholders."

Reference: Tuovila, Alicia. “Equity Method Definition.” Investopedia, Investopedia, 8 Oct. 2019

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On December 31 of the current year, the unadjusted trial balance of a company using the percent of receivables method to estimat
devlian [24]

The amount that should be debited to Bad Debts Expense, assuming 3% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year are estimated to be uncollectible is $1,913

<h3>What is bad debts expenses?</h3>

Bad debt are debts owned to a business which cannot be recovered. Here, the customer has chosen not to pay this amount.

Computation of amount to be debited to Bad Debts Expense:

=  Accounts Receivable, debit balance of $97,800 *  3% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year

= $97,800 *  3%

= $2,934

Then,

= $2,934 - $1,021

= $1,913

Hence, the amount that should be debited to Bad Debts Expense, assuming 3% of outstanding accounts receivable at the end of the current year are estimated to be uncollectible is $1,913

Learn more about bad debts expenses here : brainly.com/question/18568784

4 0
2 years ago
Safeco’s current assets total to $20 million versus $10 million of current liabilities, while Risco’s current assets are $10 mil
dlinn [17]

Answer:

b. The transactions would lower Safeco's financial strength as measured by its current ratio but raise Risco's current ratio

Explanation:

The formula to compute the current ratio is shown below:

Current ratio = Total Current assets ÷ total current liabilities  

So,

For Safeco, the current ratio would be

= $20 million ÷ $10 million

= 2 times

And for Risco, the current ratio would be

= $10 million ÷ $20 million

= 0.5 times

After borrowing, the current ratio would be

The current assets and the current liabilities would be increased by $10 million in each side.

For Safeco, the current ratio would be

= $30 million ÷ $20 million

= 1.5 times

And for Risco, the current ratio would be

= $20 million ÷ $30 million

= 0.67 times

By comparing the current ratio, we get to know that The Safeco current ratio would be decreased whereas, the Risco current ratio is increased

Hence, option b is correct

4 0
3 years ago
On January 10, Chen Co. issued an $80,000, 6%, 90-day note payable to Rao Co. Using a 360-day year, what is the total interest e
Yanka [14]

Answer:

d. $1,200

Explanation:

The computation of the interest expense is shown below:

= Principal × rate of interest × number of days ÷ (total number of days in a year)

= $80,000× 6% × (90 days ÷ 360 days)

= $1,200

We simply apply the simple interest formula

Since the number of days and the total number of days are given so we considered the same for the computation part.

4 0
3 years ago
Interest on a Note Payable is most appropriately accrued:_____________
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer: Interest on a Note Payable is most appropriately accrued: "B. as of the end of each accounting period during which the note is a liability.".

Explanation: As long as the Note Payable remains a liability and has not yet reached its due date, according to the accrual principle, at the end of each accounting period the accrued interest must be recognized, and when the Note payable reaches its expiration it must remain with balance 0 the interest not accrued account.

8 0
3 years ago
Alice Copper has wages of $120,000 and dividend income from a mutual fund of $5,000. She has allowable itemized deductions of $9
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

$112,600

Explanation:

Calculation for What is the amount of Alice's Taxable Income

Wages $120,000

Add Dividend Income $5,000

Adjusted Gross Income $125,000

($120,000+$5,000)

Less Standard Deduction(Single and no dependents) ($12,400)

Taxable Income $112,600

($125,000-$12,400)

Therefore the amount of Alice's Taxable Income will be $112,600

4 0
3 years ago
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