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Akimi4 [234]
3 years ago
14

A stock is currently priced at $52.50 a share. One year from now, the stock price is expected to be either $54 or $60 a share. T

he risk-free rate of return is 4 percent. What is the value of a 1-year call option with an exercise price of $55
Business
1 answer:
oee [108]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Value of 1-Year option=$0.48

Explanation:

First, we have to calculate the present value of share being priced at $54 after one year,which shall be calculated as follow:

Present value of share=54(1+4%)^-1

                                     =$51.92

Now we have to calculate the number of options which will be required to exercise for one share:

Number of options=(60-54)/(5-0)=1.2

Finally, we have to calculate the value of 1-year call options which shall be calculated as follow:

Current price of share=Number of options required for one share*Value of 1-year option+Present value of share

52.50=1.2*value of 1-Year option+51.92

1.2*value of 1-Year option=0.58

Value of 1-Year option=$0.48

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Supply-side policies have proven that smaller government makes the economy more efficient. ​ Select one: True False
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

The given statement is "False".

Explanation:

  • Supply-side policies include those strategies that increase the economic ability of an enterprise as well as the ability to manufacture. To increase supply-side efficiency, there are also many specific steps that somehow an authority may undertake.
  • Any strategy that increases the economic capacity of a nation's infrastructure and therefore its ability to transfer should be under the supply-side legal framework.
3 0
3 years ago
The management of Brinkley Corporation is interested in using simulation to estimate the profit per unit for a new product. The
Furkat [3]

The calculated profit per unit for base-case, worst-case is, and best-case for the management of Brinkley corporation is:

  • $7
  • $3 per unit
  • $3 per unit

<h3>The Profit per unit for base-case:</h3>

45 - 1 1- 24 - 3 = $7

<h3>Profit per unit for worst case:</h3>

45 - 12 - 25 - 3 = $3 per unit

<h3>Profit per unit for best case:</h3>

45 - 10 - 20 - 3 = 12$ per unit

b. The mean profit per unit is given as $7.05

c. The reason the simulation approach is preferable is due to the fact that it can help to determine the probability of profit as a particular amount, unlike the what-if scenario analysis.

It can also create different scenarios for possible resources.

d. The probability of the fact that the profit per unit woul  be less than 5 is 9%

Read more on risk analysis here: brainly.com/question/6955504

5 0
2 years ago
Each unit requires 0.25 direct labor-hours and direct laborers are paid $14.00 per hour. In addition, the variable manufacturing
pshichka [43]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Each unit requires 0.25 direct labor-hours and direct laborers are paid $14.00 per hour. In addition, the variable manufacturing overhead rate is $1.60 per direct labor-hour. The fixed manufacturing overhead is $95,000 per quarter.

Direct labor per unit= 0.25*14= $3.5

Direct labor equation= 3.5*x

x= units produced

For example:

100 units

Direct labor= 3.5*100= $350

7 0
3 years ago
Swan Finance Company, an accrual method taxpayer, requires all of its customers to carry credit life insurance. If a customer di
posledela

Answer:

Recognize an income/loan repayment of $1,300, and cancel the debt of $200 from the earlier recognition of income

Explanation:

Swan would only recognize an income/loan repayment of $1,300 having already recognized an initial income of $200 of the $1,500 owed before the death of the customer.

Accounting entries would be as follows.

Debit Bank account: $1,500

Credit income/loan repayment account: :1,300

Credit receivables: $200.

The credit of $200 in receivables would be treated as shown above due to the income of $200 already recognised and which would have been treated as follows when it was recognized,

Dr: receivables $200

Cr. interest earned $200,

7 0
3 years ago
If there is an excess supply of money in the economy, A. there is also an excess demand for money B. there is also an excess dem
yarga [219]

Answer: B. there is also an excess demand for bonds

Explanation:

When there is an excess supply of money in the economy, there is also an excess demand for bonds.

This is because in his case, rather than holding money, individuals will want to increase their being holdings and therefore, this will lead to the reduction in their holding of money. Equilibrium will further be restored as there'll be reduction in interest rate.

8 0
3 years ago
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