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timofeeve [1]
3 years ago
7

On a certain planet, which is perfectly spherically symmetric, the free-fall acceleration has magnitude g = go at the north pole

and g = ago at the equator (with 0 < a < 1). find g(9), the freefall acceleration at colatitude 9 as a function of 9.

Physics
1 answer:
ohaa [14]3 years ago
5 0
The reason why there is a difference between free-fall acceleration is a centrifugal force.
I attached a diagram that shows how this force aligns with the force of gravity.
From the diagram we can see that:
F=F_g-F_{cf}=mg'-mw^2r'cos(\alpha)\\ ma=mg'-mw^2r'cos(\alpha)\\ a=g'-w^2rcos^2(\alpha)\\
Where g' is the free-fall acceleration when there is no centrifugal force, r is the radius of the planet, and w is angular frequency of planet's rotation. \alpha is the latitude.
We can calculate g' and wr^2 from the given conditions in the problem.
g(90)=g_0;\ g_0= g'-w^2rcos^2(90)\\&#10;g_0=g'\\&#10;g(0)=ag_0;\ ag_0=g_0-w^2rcos^2(0)\\&#10;ag_0=g_0-w^2r\\&#10;w^2r=g_0(a-1)&#10;
Our final equation is:
g=g_0-g_0(a-1)cos^2(\alpha)
Colatitude is:
\alpha_c=90^\circ-\alpha
The answer is:
g=g_0-g_0(a-1)cos^2(90-9)=g_0-g_0(a-1)sin^2(9)

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The moon's surface gravity is one-sixth that of the earth. Calculate the weight on the moon of an object that has a mass of 24 k
ad-work [718]
When we say "<span>The moon's surface gravity is one-sixth that of the earth.",
we mean that the acceleration of gravity on the Moon's surface is 1/6 of
the acceleration of gravity on the Earth's surface.

The acceleration of gravity is (9.8 m/s</span>²) on the Earth's surface, so
<span>it would be (9.8/6 m/s</span>²) on the Moon's surface.
<span>
The weight of any object, right now, is

(object's mass) </span>· (acceleration of gravity where the object is located now) .
<span>
If the object's mass is 24 kg and the object is on the Moon right now,
then its weight is 

(24 kg) </span>· (9.8/6 m/s²)

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7 0
2 years ago
What is the difference between a bar magnet and an electromagnet? (check all that are
lukranit [14]

Answer:

D and A

Explanation:

Hint The basic difference between them is that a bar magnet is a permanent magnet whereas an electromagnet is a temporary magnet. An electromagnet is formed when an electric current is passed through wires wound around soft metalcore. An electromagnet loses its magnetism once the current flow is stopped.

5 0
2 years ago
A sinusoidal voltage is given by the expression ????(????)=20cos(5π×103 ????+60°) V. Determine its (a) frequency in hertz, (b) p
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

<em>There are some placeholders in the expression, but they can be safely assumed</em>

Answer:

(a) f=1617.9\ Hz

(b) T=0.618\ ms

(c) A=20 \ Volts

(d) \varphi=60^o

Explanation:

<u>Sinusoidal Waves </u>

An oscillating wave can be expressed as a sinusoidal function as follows

V(t)&=A\cdot \sin(2\pi ft+\varphi )

Where

A=Amplitude

f=frequency

\varphi=Phase\  angle

The voltage of the question is the sinusoid expression  

V(t)=20cos(5\pi\times 103t+60^o)

(a) By comparing with the general formula we have

f=5\pi\times 103=1617.9\ Hz

\boxed{f=1617.9\ Hz}

(b) The period is the reciprocal of the frequency:

\displaystyle T=\frac{1}{f}

\displaystyle T=\frac{1}{1617.9\ Hz}=0.000618\ sec

Converting to milliseconds

\boxed{T=0.618\ ms}

(c) The amplitude is

\boxed{A=20 \ Volts}

(d) Phase angle:

\boxed{\varphi=60^o}

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