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Lilit [14]
3 years ago
5

1/4 cups is how much pints

Mathematics
1 answer:
oksano4ka [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0
First we need the equivalence between cups and pints to solve this question, the equivalence is:
1 cup is 0.5 pint
So we can use a rule of three simple, direct proportion to solve the problem, we change the fraction 1/4 = 0.25 to ease calculations:
1 cup ----> 0.5 pint
0.25 cup ---> x

x = (0.25)(0.5)/1
x = 0.125

Therefore 1/4 cups is equivalent to 0.125 pints
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Step-by-step explanation:

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To find the y-intercept, you must go further back. Going back 2 more units would make the table appear as:

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Since the y values decrease by 3 each time and we went back half the usual amount, then the value would be 1.5.

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==================================

Step-by-step explanation:

See the attached figure:

As shown: f(x) = √x with blue color

When f(x) is reflected across the x-axis the result will be (-√x) with red color.

Then the is reflected result across the y-axis to create the graph of function g(x) = -√(-x) with green color.

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<u>Domain </u>of g(x) = (-∞,0] & <u>Range </u>of g(x) = (-∞,0]

So, according to previous, we will check the statements:

1) The functions have the same range. <u>(Wrong)</u>

2) The functions have the same domains. <u>(Wrong)</u>

3) The only value that is in the domains of both functions is 0. <u>(True)</u>

4) There are no values that are in the ranges of both functions. <u>(Wrong)</u>

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we know that

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