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Annette [7]
3 years ago
6

008 (part 1 of 3) 10.0 points A 0.338 kg particle has a speed of 3.8 m/s at point A and kinetic energy of 10.1 J at point B. Wha

t is its kinetic energy at A? Answer in units of J. 009 (part 2 of 3) 10.0 points What is the particle’s speed at B? Answer in units of m/s. 010 (part 3 of 3) 10.0 points What is the total work done on the particle as it moves from point A to B?
Physics
1 answer:
Mice21 [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1) 2.44 joules

2) 7.73 m/s

3) 7.6 joules

Explanation:

Kinetic energy (K) of a particle is:

K=\frac{mv^{2}}{2} (1)

with m the mass, and v the velocity

1) Because we already now velocity on A (va) and the mass of the object we can calculate its kinetic energy:

K_{a}=\frac{mv_{a}^{2}}{2}=\frac{(0.338kg)(3.8\frac{m}{s})^{2}}{2}=2.44J

2) Because on B we know mass and kinetic energy we should solve (1) for v and use our values to find the velocity on B:

v_{b}=\sqrt{\frac{2K_{b}}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(10.1J)}{(0.338kg)}}=7.73\frac{m}{s}

3) Work-energy theorem states that the change of kinetic energy of an object is equal to the total work done on it, so:

W=K_b-K_a=10.1J-2.44J= 7.6J

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In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 13.1 cm2 is rotated during the time interval 3.10
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

A)\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9}

B)\Phi=0 Wb

C)emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

Explanation:

Given that:

  • no. of turns i the coil, n=200
  • area of the coil, a=13.1 \times 10^{-4}\,m^2
  • time interval of rotation, t=3.1\times 10^{-2}\,s
  • intensity of magnetic field, B=6.4\times 10^{-5}\,T

(A)

Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

So, magnetic flux is given as:

\Phi=B.a\,cos \theta..................................(1)

\theta is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 0^{\circ}

\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9} Wb

(B)

In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

∴  \theta=90^{\circ}

From eq. (1)

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 90^{\circ}

\Phi=0 Wb

(C)

According to the Faraday's Law we have:

emf=n\frac{B.a}{t}

emf=\frac{200\times 6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}}{3.1\times 10^{-2}}

emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

7 0
3 years ago
What is the ratio of the intensities of an earthquake P wave passing through the Earth and detected at two points 14 km and 49 k
Molodets [167]

Answer:

\dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=12.25

Explanation:

r_1 = 14 km

r_2 = 49 km

Intensity of a wave is inversely proportional to distance

I\propto \dfrac{1}{r^2}

So,

\dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=\dfrac{r_2^2}{r_1^2}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=\dfrac{49^2}{14^2}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=12.25

The ratio of the intensities is \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}=12.25

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3 years ago
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qwelly [4]

= 27.777

Explanation:

A kilometer has 1,000 meters, and an hour has 3,600 seconds, so 100 kilometers per hour is: 100 x 1,000 / 3,600 = 27.777... m/s.

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What is the bending of a wave around a barrier?
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That's wave 'diffraction'.
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The moon's orbital and rotational periods are identical or the same, I<span>ts rate of spin is done in unison with its rate of revolution (the time that is needed to complete one orbit). Thus, the moon rotates exactly once every time it circles the Earth.</span>
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