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zmey [24]
3 years ago
12

The following statements are true. Explain why. a. If a bond’s coupon rate is higher than its yield to maturity, then the bond w

ill sell for more than face value. b. If a bond’s coupon rate is lower than its yield to maturity, then the bond’s price will increase over its remaining maturity.
Business
1 answer:
krok68 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A Bond's current market value represented by B_{0} is the present value of a bond as on today. Present value of a bond is it's future cash flows in the form of coupon payments and principal repayment discounted at investor's expectation in the market also referred to as Yield to maturity(YTM).

Present value of a bond is given by the following equation,

B_{0} = \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{1} }  +\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{2} } \ +\ ......+\ \frac{C}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} } \  +\ \frac{RV}{(1\ +\ YTM)^{n} }

where C= Annual coupon payments

YTM = Yield to maturity/ cost of debt/ market rate of return on similarly priced bonds

RV = Redemption value of bond

n = number of years to maturity

<u>a. A bond's coupon rate is higher than it's yield to maturity, then the bond will sell for more than face value.</u>

Hence, if the company pays more interest than what is paid in the market on similarly priced bonds, such bonds shall sell at more than their face value.

<u>b. If a bond's coupon rate is lower than it's yield to maturity, then the bond's price will increase over it's remaining maturity.</u>

Similarly, if a bond pays lower rate of interest than the market rate of interest on similarly priced bonds, the bond shall sell at lower than it's face value and the price will increase over the remaining life of such bonds.

         

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An asset is classified as goodwill on the balance sheet when a company purchases an asset at greater than fair market value.
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

4) goodwill is impaired

Explanation:

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3 years ago
A company will make $74,000 in annual revenue each year for the next seven years from a new investment. The interest rate of 7.2
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

The present value is $395,354.84

Explanation:

The computation of the Present value is shown below

= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor

The discount factor should be computed by

= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years

where,  

rate is 7.25%  

Year = 0,1,2,3,4 and so on

Discount Factor:

For Year 1 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 1 = 0.9324

For Year 2 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 2 = 0.8694

For Year 3 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 3  = 0.8106

For Year 4 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 4  = 0.7558

For Year 5 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 5  = 0.7047

For Year 6 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 6  = 0.6571

For Year 7 = 1 ÷ 1.0725 ^ 7  = 0.6127

So, the calculation of a Present value of all yearly cash inflows are shown below

= (Year 1 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 1) + (Year 2 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 2) + (Year 3 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 3) + (Year 4 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 4)  + (Year 5 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 5)  + (Year 6 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 6)  + (Year 7 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 7)

= ($74,000 × 0.9324 ) + ($74,000 × 0.8694  ) + ($74,000 × 0.8106 )  + ($74,000 ×  0.7558 )  + ($74,000 × 0.7047  ) + ($74,000 × 0.6571 )  + ($74,000 × 0.6127  )

= $68,997.67  + $64,333.49  + $59,984.61  + $55,929.70  + $52,148.91  + $48,623.69  + $45,336.77

= $395,354.84

We take the first four digits of the discount factor.  

4 0
2 years ago
Dane is a stockholder in smallworld, inc., a c corporation that manufactures amusement park rides. the company recently lost a m
Georgia [21]
Dane and the other stockholders will lose their investments but nothing else. Because Dane and others are stockholders in this company, they will lose the money that they had invested in the company and they will no longer receive any dividend from the company again because the company has gone bankrupt. Dane and others are not liable for other debts that had been acquired by the company. 
7 0
3 years ago
Too Young, Inc., has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 7.1 percent and semiannual payments. The bond currently sells for
likoan [24]

Answer:

7.68%  

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Present value = $1,891

Future value or Face value = $2,000  

PMT = 2,000 × 7.1% ÷ 2 = $71

NPER = 17 years × 2 = 34 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this,  The pretax cost of debt is 7.68%        (3.84% × 2)

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Kameron, Candice and Leo were members of an LLC, Printing Unlimited, LLC (PU). They leased a digital printing press for their co
dybincka [34]

The requirement of Kameron, Candice, and Leo should be for pledging the personal assets in order to give the guarantee for the payment obligations with respect to the PU.

The information related to the pledged asset is as follows:

  • A pledged asset is a valuable possession that could be transferred to the lender in order to secure the debt or a loan.
  • The pledged asset should be considered as collateral that could be held by a lender and in return, it is for lending the funds.
  • Also, it can decrease the down payment that should be needed for the loan along with this if there is any change in the interest rate so the same should be decreased.

Therefore we can conclude that, the requirement done by these three people is needed for pledging the personal assets in order to give the guarantee for the payment obligations with respect to the PU.

Learn more about the LLC here: brainly.com/question/1214636

8 0
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