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Alex777 [14]
3 years ago
13

An acceleration of a freely falling body (9.8m/s^2) to ft/s^2

Physics
1 answer:
Ronch [10]3 years ago
5 0
9.8 m/s^2 = 32.2 ft/s^2

hope this helps :)
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The loudness, L, measured in decibels (Db), of a sound intensity, I, measured in watts per square meter, is defined as , where a
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

3 times louder

Explanation:

The Loudness in decibel Db  L = 10㏒(I/I₀)  where I = sound intensity level and I₀ = threshold of hearing = 10⁻¹² W/m².

Now, for Jessica, I₁ = sound intensity level of Jessica's music = 10⁻⁹

and I₂ = sound intensity level of Braylee's music = 10⁻³

So, substituting the variables into the equation, we have

L₁ = 10㏒(I₁/I₀)

L₁ = 10㏒(10⁻⁹/10⁻¹²)

L₁ = 10㏒(10³)

L₁ = 3 × 10㏒10

L₁ = 30㏒10

L₁ = 30 dB

Now, for Braylee, I₂ = sound intensity level of Braylee's music = 10⁻³

So, substituting the variables into the equation, we have

L₂ = 10㏒(I₁/I₀)

L₂ = 10㏒(10⁻³/10⁻¹²)

L₂ = 10㏒(10⁹)

L₂ = 9 × 10㏒10

L₂ =90㏒10

L₂ = 90 dB

So, the number of times Braylee's music is louder than Jessica's music is L₂/L₁ = 90 dB/30 dB = 3

So, Braylee's music is 3 times louder than Jessica's music

6 0
2 years ago
A ball on a string makes 25.0 revolutions in 9.37 s, in a circle radius 0.450 m. What is it’s velocity?
Sauron [17]

The velocity of the ball is 12.5 m/s

Explanation:

The velocity of the ball is given by the ratio between the distance covered by the ball and the time taken:

v=\frac{d}{t}

First, we calculate the distance covered. We know that the radius of the circle is

r = 0.450 m

And the length of the circumference is

L=2\pi r = 2\pi(0.750)=4.7 m

The ball makes 25.0 revolutions, so a total distance of

d=(25.0)L=(25.0)(4.7)=117.5 m

In a time of

t = 9.37 s

So, its velocity is

v=\frac{117.5}{9.37}=12.5 m/s

Learn more about velocity here:

brainly.com/question/5248528

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0
3 years ago
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One horse is pulling a 755 kg sled straight ahead applying a force of 1988 N. If the acceleration of the sled is 1.36 m/s2, what
Inessa [10]

Answer:

The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.13

Explanation:

Newton's second law states that the acceleration of an object is proportional to the net force on it, the factor of proportionality is the mass. So, we can express that law mathematically as:

\sum\overrightarrow{F}=m\overrightarrow{a} (1)

With F the net force, m the mass and a the acceleration of the object. In our case we're interested on what's happening to the sled, then we have to analyze the forces on it, those forces are the weight and the normal force on the vertical direction and the pulling force and frictional force in the horizontal direction. So, because (1) is a vector equation we can express that in their vertical (y) and horizontal (x) components:

F_y=ma_y (2)

F_x=ma_x (3)

On y we have that the acceleration is zero because the sled is not moving upward or downward, remember that the net force on y is the weight (W) pointing downward and the normal force pointing upward:

F_y=W+n=0

Following the convention that positive is upward and negative downward, W=mg=(755)(-9.81):

F_y=(755)(-9.81)+n=0

n=7406.55 N (4)

Now on the x direction we have the sum of the forces is the pulling force (T) and friction force (f)

F_x=F+f=ma_x

Choosing the direction where the horse is pulling F=1988N and the acceleration should be positive too, then:

1988+f=m(1.36)

f=(755)(1.36)-1988=-961.2 N

The negative sign means it's in the opposite direction the horse is pulling

The frictional force is related with the coefficient of kinetic friction in the next way:

|f|=\mu_k n

with μk the coefficient of kinetic friction, and n the normal force that we already found on (4), so we simply solve the last equation for μk:

\mu_k=\frac{|f|}{n}=\frac{961.2}{7406.55}=0.13

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Why is the picture above not an accurate representation of charges and their field lines?
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Because field lines don’t all go in to the pole. The bottom half go outwards not inwards.
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