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gladu [14]
3 years ago
6

If the salaries of the sales staff of a manufacturing company are improperly recorded as a product cost, what will be the likely

effect on net income of the period in which the error occurs?
Business
1 answer:
Fynjy0 [20]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Net Income will be overstated

Explanation:

The journal entry for salaries payable is

Salaries Expense                        Dr.

    To Cash A/C

(Being salaries paid recorded)

Salaries expense is charged to net income and the journal entry is

Net Income                                  Dr.

    To Salaries Payable

Salaries expense reduces net income as it being a deductible expenditure for a corporate.

In the given case,  salary expense has been accounted as a product cost. This would reduce the expenses and thus would overstate the net income.

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Lionel's Lawn Care is a company that maintains residential yards. Lionel's cost for his standard package of mowing, edging, and
Rudiy27

Answer:

Option "B" is the correct answer to the following statement.

$15

Explanation:

Marginal revenue is the extra revenue produced from increasing sales of a single unit of the commodity. Marginal benefit is the income received by a business or entity when the creation and distribution of one extra or marginal product.

Marginal Benefit = New revenue - Old revenue

                            = ($40) - ($25)

                            =$15

So,the Marginal Benefit for Lionel's Lawn Care is $15 .

5 0
4 years ago
aw materials purchased on account, $210,000. Raw materials used in production, $190,000 ($178,000 direct materials and $12,000 i
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

raw materials   210,000 debit

  account payable     210,000 credit

--to record purchase of raw materials on account--

WIP                                  178,000 debit

Manufacturing overhead 12,000 debit

        Raw materials                       190,000 credit

-- to record use of materials during the period--

WIP                                    90,000 debit

Manufacturing overhead 110,000 debit

        Wages payable                       200,000 credit

-- to record accrued labor during the period--

Manufacturing overhead  40,000 debit

    Accumulated depreciation equipment    40,000 credit

-- to record accrued labor during the period--

Manufacturing overhead 70,000 debit

        Account payable           70,000 credit

--to record other overhead cost accrued--

WIP       240,000 debit

   Manufacturing Overhead 240,000 credit

--to record applied overhead--

Finished Goods    520,000 debit

        WIP                                 520,000 credit

--to record transferred-out goods for the period--

Accounts receivable   600,000 debit

       Sales Revenue                   600,000 credit

--to record sales revenue--

COGS      480,000 debit

    Finished Goods    480,000 credit

--to record cost of goods sold --

  Overhead

Debit       Credit

12,000

110,000

40,000

70,000

<u>                  240,000</u>

<u>232,000   240,000</u>

Balance:       8,000

      WIP

Debit       Credit

 42,000

178,000

 90,000

240,000

<u>                520,000</u>

<u>550,000  520,000</u>

  30,000

Explanation:

For labor and raw materials we will assign the direct cost as part of Work In Process inventory. The indirect part will be post Overhead.

All this actual cost of overhead will be debited. When doing the applied overhead we credited so the difference will tell us the over or underapplied overhead.

Applied overhead calculation:

30,000 machine hours x $8 per hour = $240,000

Then we transfer the finished goods from WIP into finished goods inventory.

The sales price will be 480,000 x (1 + 25% markup) = 600,000

For the T-accounts we will post each value of the WIP and Overhead account. Then add each column and calculate the balance considering the 42,000 beginning inventory

3 0
3 years ago
When the world price of some good is above the domestic price (before trade), then after trade, that nation will likely be:
Rudiy27

Answer:

EXPORT

Explanation:

If the domestic price of a country for  a good is lower than world price before trade, it mean that the country is producing that good efficiently - at a cheaper cost. After trade, the country would export the good, so that the world can produce more of the goods it produces efficiently.

If the world price is below domestic price of a country before trade, after trade, the country would import

7 0
3 years ago
For a while in the 1920s, inflation in some ways benefited the German economy. However, it would not have made sense for Germany
Sidana [21]

Expansionary policy boosts the economy in the short run but not the long run.

Option A

<u> Explanation: </u>

Germany was considered one of the richest countries before World War 1. Their economy was very steady and there is no match for them among countries.

Due to the effect of World War 1 the country was into hyperinflation and all the prices of perishable things and food items has increased at a very fast pace. To balance the inflation they applied Expansionary monetary policy which uses the central bank to print money to stimulate the economy.

The increase in supply of printed money will ease out the lending rates and it will boost the economy.

7 0
3 years ago
The following amounts were reported on the December 31, 2019, balance sheet:
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

a. $50,000

b. 2.25 times

c. 0.75 times

Explanation:

a. The formula to compute the working capital is shown below:

Working capital = Current assets - current liabilities

where,

Current assets = Cash + accounts receivable + merchandise inventory

                        = $16,000 + $44,000 + $60,000

                        = $90,000

And, the current liabilities would be

= Wages payable + accounts payable

= $10,000 + $30,000

= $40,000

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equal to

= $90,000 - $40,000

= $50,000

b.  Current ratio = Total Current assets ÷ total current liabilities  

= $90,000 ÷ $40,000

= 2.25 times

c. Acid-test ratio = Total Current assets - merchandise inventory  ÷ total current liabilities  

= $90,000 - $60,000 ÷ $40,000

= 0.75 times

7 0
4 years ago
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