All categories

3 years ago

Rlly need help with this!!!

Mathematics

2 answers:

lisabon 2012 [21]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

wouldn't it be 3

Step-by-step explanation:

cause you dividing the weight by hrs

stepladder [879]3 years ago

7 0

1/3 hour per pound of the turkey. you can find this by examining both the x and y values and finding what they increase and decrease by. for instance, the x value, which is weight of turkey, is increasing by one pound, it is your manipulative variable. the y value is the time, which is increasing by 1/3. the slope/multiplier is therefore, 1/3.

You might be interested in

Isaac wants the equation below to have no solution when the missing number is placed in the box.

MatroZZZ [7]

Answer: 4

Step-by-step explanation: To have an equation with no solution you have to get something like 0=1 meaning you have to remove all the variables. In this equation you would distribute to get xy+2y+2x=2x+12+4x where y is the missing number. then combining like terms you get xy+2x+2y=6x+12. Subtracting 2x from both sides you get xy+2y=4x+12. Now to get the variables gone y has to be 4 so that the variables to cancel out. By plugging in 4 you can see this works; 4x+8=4x+12 and by subtracting 4x from both sides you get 8=12 which is not true meaning there is no solution.

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Any 10th grader solve it <br>for 50 points

kkurt [141]

Answer:

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0$ is proved for the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b,and c respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b and c respectively.

First term of given arithmetic progression is A

and common difference is D

ie., $a_{1}=A$ and common difference=D

The nth term can be written as

$a_{n}=A+(n-1)D$

pth term of given arithmetic progression is a

$a_{p}=A+(p-1)D=a$

qth term of given arithmetic progression is b

$a_{q}=A+(q-1)D=b$ and

rth term of given arithmetic progression is c

$a_{r}=A+(r-1)D=c$

We have to prove that

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)=0$

Now to prove LHS=RHS

Now take LHS

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{A+(p-1)D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+(q-1)D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+(r-1)D}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{A+pD-D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+qD-D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+rD-D}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD}{p}+\frac{Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD}{q}+\frac{Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD}{r}$

$=\frac{[Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD]\times qr+[Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD]\times pr+[Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD]\times pq}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}+pq^{2} rD-Dq^{2} r-Aqr^{2}-pqr^{2} D+qr^{2} D+Apr^{2}+pr^{2} qD-pDr^{2} -Ap^{2}r-p^{2} rqD+p^{2} rD+Ap^{2} q+p^{2} qrD-Dp^{2} q-Aq^{2} p-q^{2} prD+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$