Answer:
160
Step-by-step explanation:
jbuyvcezxrctvubnjonjbvcrexwexcrvbnmnbvcrxewexrcvtbn
Answer:
answer is in an image here
imageshare.best/image.php?id=JS9NDO
Explanation:
copy n paste in browser
not a bot btw
The Answer is false.
the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse.Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.
The answer is ten plz thank
