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Murrr4er [49]
3 years ago
6

Grain's alternative corporation has a predicted operating income of 80,000. The managerial accountant reported that total variab

le expenses are 25,000 and its total fixed expenses are 24,000. The company has a unit contribution margin of 20$ on its sole product. Calculate the number of units needed to reach the operating income of 80,000.
Business
1 answer:
dexar [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Number of units needed to reach the operating income of 80,000: 5,200 units

Explanation:

Please find the below for detailed calculations and explanations:

To achieve $80,000 of operating income, denote the number of units needs to be sold is x.

For each unit sold, the incremental in profit will be 20.

Thus, to achieve the profit of 80,000, the amount of x units sold will generate the profit before fixed cost that covers 24,000 fixed cost and 80,000 targeted profit. So, we have:

80,000 + 24,000 = 20x <=> x = 5,200 units.

* For quick calculation purpose, we may apply the formular: Units need to be sold to achieve targeted income = (Fixed cost + targeted income)/ Contribution margin per unit in monetary form.

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What is the highest level of message AWARENESS that can be reached with the UNIVERSITY STUDENT based on a selection(s) of POSITI
Ivahew [28]

The highest level of message AWARENESS that can be reached with the UNIVERSITY STUDENT based on a selection(s) of POSITIONING messages  is 50%.

<h3>What is positioning messages?</h3>

Positioning messages can be defined as message that contain detailed and concise information about how a product are  and how such product tend to meet customers expectations or needs.

Positioning messages as well help to described how a product are including the satisfaction or benefit a consumer can derive from the product.

Therefore based on a selection(s) of POSITIONING messages  is 50%.

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8 0
2 years ago
Based on the corporate valuation model, the total corporate value of chen lin inc. is $900 million. its balance sheet shows $110
____ [38]

Stock price would be equal to total value of equity divided by no. of shares outstanding. The total value of equity would be calculated as follows:

Total value of equity = corporate value – notes payable – long term debt – preferred stock

= $900 million - $110 million – 90 million – 20 million

= $680 million

The price of the stock would be:

Stock price = total value of equity / no. of shares outstanding

= $680 million / 25 million

= $27.20

4 0
3 years ago
n​ mid-2017, an article in the Wall Street Journal noted​ that: ​"The Federal​ Reserve's interest-rate increases​ aren't having
telo118 [61]

Answer:

No

Explanation:

When Congress enacted the Federal Reserve Act in 1913, they stated the FED's mandates:

  1. promote maximum employment
  2. promote stable price

The FED's main objective is to conduct monetary policy in order to stabilize the economy and promote economic growth.

By stabilizing the economy the FED will lower inflation rate, therefore stabilizing prices. When the FED promotes economic growth, the unemployment rate should decrease, hopefully reaching a full employment.

7 0
3 years ago
AC Corporation has beginning inventory of $9,049, accounts payable of $7,212, and accounts receivable of $6,333. The end of year
labwork [276]

Answer:

The AC Corporation takes 46 Days average to pay back its accounts payable.

Explanation:

Average Accounts Payable = $7863.5

Cost of Goods Sold = $63,008

Number of Days in Accounting Period = 365

Days Payable Outstanding = (Average Accounts Payable / Cost of Goods Sold) x Number of Days in Accounting Period

Days Payable Outstanding = ($7,863.5 / $63,008) x 365

Days Payable Outstanding = 45.55

Therefor, the company takes an average of 46 days to pay back its accounts payable.

3 0
3 years ago
What single investment made today, earning 12% annual interest, will be worth $6,000 at the end of 6 years? b. What is the prese
ankoles [38]

Answer:

The results a-c  are the same $3,039.79  

However, the rate of return is given different names in each of the scenario.

In the first scenario, it was named annual interest which implies rate of return on an investment.

Annual interest is the same as discount rate because discounting an amount means stating in today's terms,which also applies to the amount to be invested when the future cash flow repayable is known, the amount to be invested can be brought back to equivalent amount today by discounting.

Finally, opportunity cost means the interest rate forgone by choosing to invest in one security,which is also the desirable rate of return convincing enough for the investment to be made.

A rate of return can be tagged annual interest, opportunity cost or discount rate,they are synonymous.

Explanation:

a.

The $6000 is the future value, the unknown is present value.

PV=FV*(1+r)^-N

r is the rate of return of 12% while N is 6 years

PV=$6000*(1+12%)^-6

PV=$3,039.79

b.the requirement also is PV with FV of $6,000 with discount rate of 12%,that rate of return,with N being 6 years

PV=$6000*(1+12%)^-6  

PV=$ 3,039.79  

c,The most to be paid for $6,000 with an opportunity cost of $12% is given below;

PV=$6000*(1+12%)^-6

    =$3,039.79  

4 0
3 years ago
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