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3 years ago

???????????????????hep

Mathematics

2 answers:

ludmilkaskok [199]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay so we were given a formula to figure this out.

A=p(1+r)^t

A= future balance- is unknown

p=Current balance-2,000

R=rate of interest-20%

T=time in years-10 years

so we need to plug em in

A=2,000(1+20%)^10

so now we need to do PEMDAS(Order of operations)

so we need to do whats in the parenthesis first.

20%+1=2.1

now we need to do exponent

a=2,000+2.1^10

2.1^10=1667.98

A=2,000+1667.98

A=3,667.98

now we need to round to the nearest dollar

B=4,000

is your answer

In-s [12.5K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

the process of retting softens the tissue and helps to separate the fibres

Step-by-step explanation: Here is my explanation

the process of retting softens the tissue and helps to separate the fibres

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Ms. Rowlen went Black Friday shopping and she bought a flat screen TV that originally costs $259.00. She used her super Savings

Paladinen [302]

Answer:

116.55$

Step-by-step explanation:

$259 \times \frac{45}{100} = 116.55$

7 0

2 years ago

A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.

Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

$p(m) = 0.52$ (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

$p(f) = 0.48$ (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over 2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

$p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)$

And substituting, we find

$p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27$

So, 27%.

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

$p(ff)$

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

$p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)$