see the attached figure to better understand the problem
we know that
1) If angle 1 and angle 2 are complementary angles
then
m∠1+m∠2=
------> equation A
2) If angle 1 and angle 2 are congruent angles
then
m∠1=m∠2 ------> equation B
Substitute equation B in equation A
m∠1+(m∠1)=
2m∠1=
m∠1=
therefore
<u>the answer is</u>
Since f(x) is (strictly) increasing, we know that it is one-to-one and has an inverse f^(-1)(x). Then we can apply the inverse function theorem. Suppose f(a) = b and a = f^(-1)(b). By definition of inverse function, we have
f^(-1)(f(x)) = x
Differentiating with the chain rule gives
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) f'(x) = 1
so that
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
Let x = a; then
(f^(-1))'(f(a)) = 1/f'(a)
(f^(-1))'(b) = 1/f'(a)
In particular, we take a = 2 and b = 7; then
(f^(-1))'(7) = 1/f'(2) = 1/5
Answer:
x=11
Step-by-step explanation:
Since this is a 90º angle, 46º+(4x)º has to equal 90º, and you can make and solve an equation for this:
46+4x=90
4x=44
x=11
Check:
46+4x=90
46+4(11)=90
46+44=90
90=90
3.125 would be the answer hope this helps
Answer:
63720
Step-by-step explanation:
yes