42.96 I think
I’m very sorry if I’m wrong but I’m 90 sure I’m right
Answer: Q=1/2p+15,= p=2q-30= Slope = 1.000/2.000 = 0.500
p-intercept = -30/1 = -30.00000
q-intercept = 30/2 = 15
Step-by-step explanation: Rearrange the equation by subtracting what is to the right of the equal sign from both sides of the equation :
p-(2*q-30)=0
Solve p-2q+30 = 0
we have an equation of a straight line. Such an equation is usually written y=mx+b ("y=mx+c" in the UK).
"y=mx+b" is the formula of a straight line drawn on Cartesian coordinate system in which "y" is the vertical axis and "x" the horizontal axis.
In this formula :
y tells us how far up the line goes
x tells us how far along
m is the Slope or Gradient i.e. how steep the line is
b is the Y-intercept i.e. where the line crosses the Y axis
The X and Y intercepts and the Slope are called the line properties. We shall now graph the line p-2q+30 = 0 and calculate its properties
Notice that when p = 0 the value of q is 15/1 so this line "cuts" the q axis at q=15.00000
q-intercept = 30/2 = 15
When q = 0 the value of p is -30/1 Our line therefore "cuts" the p axis at p=-30.00000
p-intercept = -30/1 = -30.00000
Slope is defined as the change in q divided by the change in p. We note that for p=0, the value of q is 15.000 and for p=2.000, the value of q is 16.000. So, for a change of 2.000 in p (The change in p is sometimes referred to as "RUN") we get a change of 16.000 - 15.000 = 1.000 in q. (The change in q is sometimes referred to as "RISE" and the Slope is m = RISE / RUN)
Slope = 1.000/2.000 = 0.500
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
The mean for the binomial distribution is given by:
And the variance is given by:
And the deviation is just the square root of the variance so we got:
The first one, the six is in the one's place. the second on the six is in the tenths place.
