Given 3a/(a+1)^2
To make the denominator a cube, you would have to multiply by 1 or (a+1)/(a+1)
yielding 3a(a+1)/(a+1)^3
(3a^2 + 3a) is the equivalent numerator
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
i think it is b but not sure
Step-by-step explanation:
NO It can not!
Reason: the reason is because since both are the same , it will equal the mostly 0! So it wouldn’t make sense. So no!
Hoped I help mark brainly it would help me a lot!
