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scoundrel [369]
3 years ago
6

Which shows 42^2 − 38^2 being evaluated using the difference of perfect squares method?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Viktor [21]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:The correct answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

Basile [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

a²  - b² ← is a difference of squares and is factored in general as

(a + b)(a - b)

42² - 38² ← is a difference of squares and factors as

42² - 38² = (42 + 38)(42 - 38) = 80(4) = 320 → D

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
-3/4 + (-3/4)<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7B%20-%203%7D%7B4%7D%20%20%2B%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%20-%203%7D%7B4%7D%20
nika2105 [10]

Firstly, since these two fractions have the same denominator, add the numerators up: \frac{-6}{4}

While it appears that the answer is -6/4, you can further simplify it by dividing the numerator and denominator by 2: -\frac{6}{4}\div\frac{2}{2}=-\frac{3}{2}

<u>Your answer is -\frac{3}{2}</u>

3 0
3 years ago
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