The measure of systematic risk is called <u>beta</u>.
The answer is option c.
Beta is the same old CAPM measure of systematic hazard. It gauges the tendency of the go back of protection to transport in parallel with the return of the inventory market as an entire. One manner to consider beta is as a gauge of a protection's volatility relative to the marketplace's volatility.
Systematic risk is a part of the total risk this is caused by factors beyond the control of a specific company or individual. Systematic risk is caused by elements that are outside to the organization. All investments or securities are situations to systematic hazard and, therefore, it's far a non-diversifiable chance.
To measure a monetary firm's contribution to systemic hazard includes measuring the company's expected capital shortfall in a crisis. This right away offers the regulator with a quantifiable degree of the relative significance of a firm's contribution to ordinary systemic chance.
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Answer:
Option C 0.72 is correct
Explanation:
Cash and cash equivalents 351
Marketable securities 379
Accounts receivable 242
Total quick assets 972
Divide by Current liabilities 1341
Quick ratio 0.72
Answers are:
<span>Producers supply the exact goods that consumers buy.
Consumers have enough goods, at the given price
</span><span>Producers use their resources efficiently
At the equilibrium price, the quantity bought= quantity sold. Consumers have enough goods at the given price, meaning that there isn't anyone who wants to buy the good at that price but can't, and producers use their resources efficiently.
The whole economy does not waste resources, since this is the market-efficient outcome, and there aren't many shortages or surpluses for the same reason. </span>
Its probably C. The other answers are highly unlikely.
Answer: $2,398.55
Explanation:
The deposit at the end of year one would have been compounded by 2 years at the end of year 3. The second year deposit would have compounded by 1 year and the third year deposit would not have compounded at all.
The future value at the end of 3 years is;
= (500 * ( 1 + 11%)²) + (750 * ( 1 + 11%)) + 950
= $2,398.55
<em>The question might not be the exact same but you can use this as a reference. </em>