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Lerok [7]
3 years ago
14

Please need help!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
HACTEHA [7]3 years ago
7 0
I think 20×5=100 then 100÷2
cupoosta [38]3 years ago
5 0
20 x 5=100 divide 100 by 2 and it equals 50
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Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
mestny [16]

For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23,  we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.

Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77

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and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.

The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:

Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.

Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)

n*p = ?

n*q = ?

Learn to know more about binomial experiments at

brainly.com/question/1580153

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Step-by-step explanation:

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