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ziro4ka [17]
3 years ago
12

A worker pushes a large rock to the north while another worker helps by pushing it to the east. If they both exert equal force,

in what direction does the rock move?
northeast

east

north

southwest

Physics
1 answer:
Cloud [144]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Northeast

Explanation:

Let magnitude of the force acting along north and east be F.

One worker pushes it toward north and another pushes it along east with same magnitude.

According to law of parallelogram the Resultant force has direction along northeast as shown in the figure.


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Answer:

Maybe

Explanation:

It depends. If he says the shoes sucked than no because they suck-

But if he really liked the shoes and said it was really good than yes

I would buy the shoes

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a car whose initial speed is 30 seconds m / s slows uniformly to a stop in 5.00 seconds what was the cars displacement ​
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4 0
2 years ago
Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

<em>consider the attached diagram below</em>

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }  = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }

likewise,

\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }  = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }

hence,

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where (1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )

also,

{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )

the above equation becomes

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]

V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * \frac{1}{2r^{2} } *(b^{2} -a^{2} )

V = \frac{q}{8\pi e0 r^{3} } * (b^{2} -a^{2} )

Answer

V = \frac{q (b^{2} -a^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }

OR

V = \frac{-q (a^{2} -b^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }

8 0
3 years ago
Here, mA = 3.65 kg and mB = 7.05 kg. The string connecting the two objects is of negligible mass and the pulley is frictionless.
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

The magintude of the acceleration for both objects is 3.11m/s^2

Explanation:

Drawing a free body diagram on the two boxes we can analyze the system more easily.

we can take the acceleration going up as positive for reference purposes.

for mA let's suppose that is ascending so:

T_A-m_A*g=m_A*a

and for mB (descending):

T_B-m_B*g=-m_B*a

T_A=T_B

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So the magintude of the acceleration for both objects is 3.11m/s^2

5 0
3 years ago
Jonathan has six strings that are the same thickness and are all the same material. He cuts the strings to different lengths and
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The shortest string will have the highest pitch.

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