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Nina [5.8K]
3 years ago
7

6. A coupon offers $1.00 off the 16-ounce size. Which size is the better buy then?

Mathematics
1 answer:
svlad2 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Both sizes are better because they cost Same.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

A coupon offers $1.00 off the 16

            Quantity     Price

Pint           16           $3.98

Quart        32           $5.98

If he gets $1 off for the 16-ounce size. The price will be:

3.98-1=2.98

He needs to pay $2.98 for 16-ounce pint.

Now find which one is better by calculating the unit rate.

\frac{Cost}{weight}=\frac{2.98 }{16}\approx0.186

Therefore, the cost of 1lb would be $0.186

For Quart 32 find the unit rate as shown:

\frac{Cost}{weight}=\frac{5.98}{32}\approx0.186

Therefore, the cost of 1lb would be $0.186

Hence, both of the size are better as the unit rate is same.

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As for m∠3 and m∠4, If you look at ∠3 you'll see that it is complementary to ∠1 (They both add up to 90°), so if you subtract m∠1 from 90° you'll have found m∠3. You find m∠4 the same way.

Hope this helped.
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2 years ago
The size of a television is given by the length of its diagonal. What is the size
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

it is A. 60 in

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to use the Pythagorean theorem for this. Take the square root of (48^2 + 36^2). This will give you the length of the diagonal.

48^2 + 36^2 = 3600

Remember we need to take the square root of 3600, which is just 60.

The length of the diagonal is 60 inches.

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2 years ago
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I think I wrote question wrong, it’s what is the biggest even number I can make using all four numbers 4,6,3,1 I don’t think it’
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

4 digits even number - 6314

8 0
2 years ago
If f(x)=sinx 2x 1 and g is the inverse function of f
Bingel [31]

The value of the derivative of the function g(x) at x = 1 will be 1/3. Then the correct option is A.

<h3>What is an inverse function?</h3>

A function that may convert into another function is known as an inverse function or anti-function.

If the function is f(x) = sinx + 2x + 1.

Then the derivative of an inverse function g(x) of a function f(x) at a given value (a) will be

\rm g'(a) = \dfrac{1}{f'(g(a))}

The derivative of f(x) will be

f'(x) = cos x + 2

Then the given value of a will be

a = 1

g(x) = f⁻¹(x)

put x = 0, then we have

f(0) = sin 0 + 2(0) + 1

f(0) = 1

Put x = 1, in the function f⁻¹(x). Then we have

f⁻¹(1) = 0

and

g(1) = 0

Then put a = 1, then we have

\rm g'(a) = \dfrac{1}{f'(g(a))}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{f'(g(1))}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{f'(0)}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{\cos 0 + 2}\\\\g'(1) = \dfrac{1}{1+2}= \dfrac{1}{3}

More about the inverse function link is given below.

brainly.com/question/2541698

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
Simplify 38 over 49 what’s the anwswer
Katyanochek1 [597]

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If you are reducing it as a fraction, it is not possible because there is no other number to reduce it, so it will be in it's simplest form already.

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