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In-s [12.5K]
3 years ago
13

Which equation shows how to find the product of 100,000 and 1,000,000 using scientific notation?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Drupady [299]3 years ago
8 0
Your answer is B 100,000 × 1,000,000 = (1 × 10^5) × (1 × 10^6) = 1 × 10^(5 × 6) = 1 × 10^30 because...

100,000=1×10^5
1,000,000=1×10^6

And 5×6=30

Also its not A because 5×6=30 not 11 its not C because 5×6=30 not 13 and when it came down to rather B or D I choose Because once again 5×6=30 no 42.


Basically all of the options are worded correctly but their they didn't multiply it the same at the end which is 5×6


Your answer is B.
eimsori [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer to the question is A.) 100,000 × 1,000,000 = (1 × 10^5) × (1 × 10^6) = 1 × 10^(5 + 6) = 1 × 10^11

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Given the inequality below:<br><br> 3x-y&gt;4<br><br> Which is the graph of the solution set?
OLga [1]

Answer:

A shaded region below a dashed line (y <3x-4)

Step-by-step explanation:

For linear inequalities, we have shaded regions below or above a dashed or solid or continuous line represented by an inequality.

Their graphs are called region graphs. Those regions are only enclosed ones if before the sign of inequality it is included both variables. Like x²+y²<1, |x+y|<1, etc.

In this case what we have here is an open region, as the graph below shows.

3x-y>4 =-y>4-3x∴y<3x-4

Setting a value for x

3x-4=0

3x=4

3x/3=4/3

x=4/3 (slope)

(4/3,0)

6 0
3 years ago
CAN someone help pweaseeee ill mark brainliest
zepelin [54]

Answer:

a.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone explain how to even do this, I literally just don't get it ​
kolezko [41]

Answer:

It is an isosceles triangle (side FE = FG)

Therefore the base angles are equal.

75 degrees = 2x degrees

x = 75 / 2 = 37.5 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Please help me thank you
Phantasy [73]
The answer is B. The second one
3 0
3 years ago
The circumference of the base of a cone is 24 inches. The slant height of the cone is 20 inches.
loris [4]

The surface area of a cone with circumference base of 24π inches and slant height of 20 inches is 384π inches² in terms of π.

<h3>Surface area of a cone</h3>

surface area = πr(r + l)

where

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  • l = slant height

Therefore,

l = 20 inches

24π = 2πr

r = 12

Therefore,

surface area  = π(12)(12 + 20)

surface area = 12π(12 + 20)

surface area = 12π × 32

surface area = 384π inches²

learn more on surface area here: brainly.com/question/2847956

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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