All categories

3 years ago

How is the wavelength of a longitudinal wave determines?

Physics

2 answers:

const2013 [10]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Wavelength can be measured as the distance between two adjacent crests of a transverse wave or two adjacent compressions of a longitudinal wave

Explanation:

butalik [34]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The wavelength can always be determined by measuring the distance between any two corresponding points on adjacent waves. In the case of a longitudinal wave, a wavelength measurement is made by measuring the distance from a compression to the next compression or from a rarefaction to the next rarefaction.

Explanation:

You might be interested in

A. What is the RMS speed of Helium atoms when the temperature of the Helium gas is 343.0 K? (Possibly useful constants: the atom

kkurt [141]

Answer:

(a) 1462.38 m/s

(b) 2068.13 m/s

Explanation:

(a)

The Kinetic energy of the atom can be given as:

K.E = (3/2)KT

where,

K = Boltzman's Constant = 1.38 x 10⁻²³ J/k

K.E = Kinetic Energy of atoms = 343 K

T = absolute temperature of atoms

The K.E is also given as:

K.E = (1/2)mv²

Comparing both equations:

(1/2)mv² = (3/2)KT

v² = 3KT/m

v = √[3KT/m]

where,

m = mass of Helium = (4 A.M.U)(1.66 X 10⁻²⁷ kg/ A.M.U) = 6.64 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

v = RMS Speed of Helium Atoms = ?

Therefore,

v = √[(3)(1.38 x 10⁻²³ J/K)(343 K)/(6.64 x 10⁻²⁷ kg)]

(b)

For double temperature:

T = 2 x 343 K = 686 K

all other data remains same:

v = √[(3)(1.38 x 10⁻²³ J/K)(686 K)/(6.64 x 10⁻²⁷ kg)]

8 0

3 years ago

A book is being pushed to the right across a desk with a constant acceleration.

nexus9112 [7]

Explanation:

The force would be net positive.

7 0

3 years ago

Explain the evidence that Neils Bohr used to confirm that the electrons in an atom orbit in fixed shells. (4)

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

Break the limit

Explanation:

A perfect combination

4 0

3 years ago

How long would it take me to travel 48 milllion miles at 200000 mph?

MakcuM [25]

For this question, you must divide 48 million by two hundred thousand to get your answer. The quotient of these number is 240, which if reduced to days, is exactly ten days.

5 0

3 years ago

Although 0 dB is often referred to as the lower threshold of human hearing, it is important to realize that the human ear is not

d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

a) 3000 Hz;

b) 30 dB;

c) 1000 times.

Explanation:

a) From the human audiogram given on the figure below the black line represents the threshold for hearing the sound at each frequency. We see that the least intensity is necessary for the frequency of about 3000 Hz.

b) Using the same audiogram we see that we would need the sound of the intensity of about 30dB.

c) The least perceptible sound at 1000 Hz must be 0dB while at 100 Hz it is 30dB. These are logarithmic quantities. To transform them to the linear quantities we use the formula

$I(\text{in dB})=10\log\frac{I}{I_0(\text{at }1000\text{ Hz})},$

where $I_0(\text{at }1000\text{ Hz})$ is the hearing threshold at 1000 Hz.

Therefore we have the following

$0\text{ dB}=10\log\frac{I_1}{I_0(\text{at }1000\text{ Hz})}\quad 30\text{ dB}=10\log\frac{I_2}{I_0(\text{at }1000\text{ Hz})}$

$I_1$ is the threshold at 1000Hz and $I_2$ is the threshold at 100Hz.

By exponentiating we have

$10^0=\frac{I_1}{I_0(\text{at }1000\text{ Hz})},\quad 10^3=\frac{I_2}{I_0\text{at }1000\text{ Hz}}.$

Now dividing these two equations we get

$\frac{I_2}{I_1}=\frac{10^3}{10^0}=1000.$

Therefore, the least perceptible sound at 100Hz is 1000 times more intense than the least perceptible sound at 1000Hz.

Note: I got these values unisng the audiogram that is attached here. The one that you have might be slightly different and might yield different answers.

7 0

3 years ago