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on my calculator 48^1/5 equals 2.168943542
but out of a fraction 1/5 equals 0.2 ( they both equal the same thing)
2.168943542
Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
If f(x) and g(x) are the inverses of each other, then
f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x
f(g(x)) = f(x -
) = x -
+
= x
g(f(x)) = g(x +
) = x +
-
= x
Hence f(x) and g(x) are the inverse of each other
So there are a totally of 52 cards right?(not counting jokers because jokers are not in official cards)
And there are 4 aces right?
So there are 52 outcomes and 4 of them are aces.
So when we write probabilities we write it in fraction form where the total number of outcomes is the denominator and the ones you want to get are the numerator OK?
So the total number is outcomes is 52 and becomes the denominator and 4 the number of aces become the numerator.
So 4/52 right?
And we now have to simplify it right?
And so we divide by the highest common factor right?
In this case 4 because there isn’t other numbers that are factors and greater than 4.
So 4 divided by 4/52 is 1/13 right?
4 goes into 4 1 time and 13 times into 52.
So your answer is 1/13