1) Our marbles will be blue, red, and green. You need two fractions that can be multiplied together to make 1/6. There are two sets of numbers that can be multiplied to make 6: 1 and 6, and 2 and 3. If you give the marbles a 1/1 chance of being picked, then there's no way that a 1/6 chance can be present So we need to use a 1/3 and a 1/2 chance. 2 isn't a factor of 6, but 3 is. So we need the 1/3 chance to become apparent first. Therefore, 3 of the marbles will need to be one colour, to make a 1/3 chance of picking them out of the 9. So let's say 3 of the marbles are green. So now you have 8 marbles left, and you need a 1/2 chance of picking another colour. 8/2 = 4, so 4 of the marbles must be another colour, to make a 1/2 chance of picking them. So let's say 4 of the marbles are blue. We know 3 are green and 4 are blue, 3 + 4 is 7, so the last 2 must be red.
The problem could look like this:
A bag contains 4 blue marbles, 2 red marbles, and 3 green marbles. What are the chances she will pick 1 blue and 1 green marble?
You should note that picking the blue first, then the green, will make no difference to the overall probability, it's still 1/6. Don't worry, I checked
2) a - 2% as a probability is 2/100, or 1/50. The chance of two pudding cups, as the two aren't related, both being defective in the same packet are therefore 1/50 * 1/50, or 1/2500.
b - 1,000,000/2500 = 400
400 packages are defective each year
Answer:
11 ways
100 Pennies & 0 Dimes
90 Pennies & 1 Dimes
80 Pennies & 2 Dimes
70 Pennies & 3 Dimes
60 Pennies & 4 Dimes
50 Pennies & 5 Dimes
40 Pennies & 6 Dimes
30 Pennies & 7 Dimes
Step-by-step explanation:
Hello there.
<span>3×9+10×
Answer: 36</span>
Answer:
Hello, Your answer will be 4 tablespoons
Step-by-step explanation:
1/4 cups or fluid ounces.... <em>Hope That Helps.....</em>
So Volume of cylinder is pi*r^2*h = 1,000
Then lightest one means you have the smallest surface area. Which is one base and then the area of the surface. SA = pi*r^2 + 2pi*r*h
So now you have 2 equations, so:
h = 1,000/(pi*r^2)
So then SA = pi*r^2 + 2pi*r*(1,000/(pi*r^2) = pi*r^2 + 2,000/r
Derivative of SA is then 2pi*r -2,000/r^2. Set to 0
2pi*r-2,000/r^2 =0 --> 2pi*r^3 = 2,000 --> r^3 = 1,000/pi --> r = 10/pi^(1/3)
Now go back to the volume function: pi*r^2*h =1,000 --> 1,000/(pi*100/pi^(2/3)) = h
<span>h = 10 / pi^(1/3)</span>
