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2 years ago

14

Lisa swam one less than 4 times as many laps as amanda. Brynne swam 11 more laps than Amanda. If lisa & brynne swam the same

amount of laps, how many laps did Amanda swim?
4 laps
6 laps
9 laps
11 laps

1 answer:

Vsevolod [243]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

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Sonji has $5.25 in nickels and dimes. The coin value can be modeled by the equation 0.100 +0.05n=5.25, where d represents

rewona [7]

Answer:

c.63

will be your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

Find the least squares regression line for the data points. (Let x be the independent variable and y be the dependent variable.)

solniwko [45]

Answer:

y = - 0.9167 - 0.75x

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data:

(−1, 0), (1, −2), (3, −3)

X : - 1, 1, 3

Y : 0, - 2, - 3

The regression model is written in the form:

y = C + mx

Where ;

C = intercept ; m = slope / gradient

Using the regression model calculator on the data values given above :

Slope (m) = - 0.75

Intercept (c) = - 0.9167

Hence,

y = - 0.9167 - 0.75x

c

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2 years ago

In testing a certain kind of missile, target accuracy is measured by the average distance X at which the missile explodes. The d

3241004551 [841]

Answer:

The answer is c) 761.0

Step-by-step explanation:

Mathematical hope (also known as hope, expected value, population means or simply means) expresses the average value of a random phenomenon and is denoted as E (x). Hope is the sum of the product of the probability of each event by the value of that event. It is then defined as shown in the image, Where x is the value of the event, P the probability of its occurrence, "i" the period in which said event occurs and N the total number of periods or observations.

The variance of a random variable provides an idea of the dispersion of the random variable with respect to its hope. It is then defined as shown in the image.

Then you first calculate E [x] and E [ $x^{2}$ ], and then be able to calculate the variance.

$E[x]=0*\frac{1}{40} +10*\frac{1}{20} +50*\frac{1}{10} +100*\frac{33}{40}$

$E[x]=0+\frac{1}{2} +5+\frac{165}{2}$

E[X]=88

So <em>E[X]²=88²=7744</em>

On the other hand

$E[x^{2} ]=0^{2} *\frac{1}{40} +10^{2} *\frac{1}{20} +50^{2} *\frac{1}{10} +100^{2} *\frac{33}{40}$

E[x²]=0+5+250+8250

<em>E[x²]=8505 </em>

Then the variance will be:

Var[x]=8505-7744

<u><em>Var[x]=761 </em></u>

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2 years ago

A man sold his car for 5,000 which was 60% less than it cost him, how much did the car cost him?

marissa [1.9K]

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5000 / 0.60 = 8,333.33

He bought the car for $8,333.33

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3 years ago