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Wewaii [24]
3 years ago
12

Find the length of BC in the diagram below, given that AC = 90, CD-45, and

Mathematics
1 answer:
Masteriza [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Do you have a picture

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which of the following points is in the solution set of y > -x2 + 5? (0, 5) (1, 3) (2, 4)
mylen [45]

Answer:

(2, 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

The only point that satisfies the inequality is (2, 4).

(0, 5) : -0^2 +5 = 5 . . . . . not > 5

(1, 3) : -1^2 +5 = 4 . . . . . . 3 is not > 4

(2, 4) : -2^2 +5 = 1 . . . . . . 4 is greater than 1, so this point is in the solution set.

5 0
3 years ago
Which expression represents the quotient of d and 11​
inna [77]

Answer:   :} where is the rest of the question

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Given a = -3, b = 4 and c = -5, evaluate a - b - c. -12 -6 -2
KiRa [710]
A - B - C = 
-3 - 4 + 5 = 
-7 + 5 =
-2

negative three minus four plus five is negative two
welcome :/
4 0
3 years ago
How many ink cartridges can you buy with 150 dollars if one cartridge costs 15 dollars ?
musickatia [10]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Very easy equation if you know how to do it. All you need to do is divide your total amount of something (in this case "150" as that's our amount of "money we're given") by whatever the price or amount is. (In this case 15. Each cartridge costs $15. I'm not amazing at explaining things like this.. Sorry about that. If you have any questions about this feel free to let me know!)

So to put it "all together":

150 ÷ 15 = 10.

10 is your answer.

Hope this helps and have a nice day!

8 0
3 years ago
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
3 years ago
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