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Talja [164]
3 years ago
8

If a currency's spot market is liquid, its exchange rate will ________ highly sensitive to a single large purchase or sale of th

e currency. Therefore, the change in the equilibrium exchange rate will be relatively ________.
Business
2 answers:
Troyanec [42]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answers to fill the blank spaces are not be; small

Explanation:

If a currency's spot market is liquid, its exchange rate will not be highly sensitive to a single large purchase or sale of the currency. Therefore, the change in the equilibrium exchange rate will be relatively small.

hodyreva [135]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

If a currency's spot market is liquid, its exchange rate will <u>NOT BE</u> highly sensitive to a single large purchase or sale of the currency. Therefore, the change in the equilibrium exchange rate will be relatively <u>SMALL</u>.

Explanation:

Liquid currencies are currencies that are traded fairly often and in large amounts, e.g. the US dollar is the most liquid currency in the world, but the euro or the yen are also very liquid. Since they are traded very often and really thousands of times per day, one extra transaction (either purchase or sale) no matter how large it is, will not affect the currency's value very much. Liquid currencies operate in similar conditions to perfect competition markets, where all the players are basically price takers since no single seller or buyer is large enough to change the price.

The yuan is also a very liquid currency, but it doesn't float freely since its value is fixed by the Chinese government.

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The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $
diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

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= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

= inflows * 3.8887

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

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