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8_murik_8 [283]
3 years ago
13

A polyethylene rod exactly 10 inches long with a cross-sectional area of 0.04 in2 is used to suspend a weight of 358 lbs-f (poun

ds-force). Given the tensile modulus for this polymer is 25,000 psi and the viscosity is 1 × 109 psi-sec, calculate the length of the rod, in inches, 1 hour(s) after loading. Answer Format: X.XX Unit: inches
Engineering
1 answer:
Nadya [2.5K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Final length of the rod = 13.90 in

Explanation:

Cross Sectional Area of the polythene rod, A = 0.04 in²

Original length of the polythene rod, l = 10 inches

Tensile modulus for the polymer, E = 25,000 psi

Viscosity, \eta = 1*10^{9} psi -sec

Weight = 358 lbs - f

time, t = 1 hr = 3600 sec

Stress is given by:

\sigma = \frac{Force}{Area} \\\sigma = \frac{358}{0.04} \\\sigma = 8950 psi

Based on Maxwell's equation, the strain is given by:

strain = \sigma ( \frac{1}{E} + \frac{t}{\eta} )\\Strain = 8950 ( \frac{1}{25000} + \frac{3600}{10^{9} } )\\Strain = 0.39022

Strain = Extension/(original Length)

0.39022 = Extension/10

Extension = 0.39022 * 10

Extension = 3.9022 in

Extension = Final length - Original length

3.9022 =  Final length - 10

Final length = 10 + 3.9022

Final length = 13.9022 in

Final length = 13.90 in

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Find the True statement
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Explanation:

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A dice is thrown 420 times and the number 6 is obtained 63 times; express the frequency of obtaining
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Explanation:

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2 years ago
1. The area(in square centimeters) of a square coaster can be represented by
Brrunno [24]

Answer: (d−4) 2

Explanation: Factoring  d2-8d+16

The first term is,  d2  its coefficient is  1 .

The middle term is,  -8d  its coefficient is  -8 .

The last term, "the constant", is  +16

Step-1 : Multiply the coefficient of the first term by the constant   1 • 16 = 16

Step-2 : Find two factors of  16  whose sum equals the coefficient of the middle term, which is   -8 .

     -16    +    -1    =    -17

     -8    +    -2    =    -10

     -4    +    -4    =    -8    That's it

Step-3 : Rewrite the polynomial splitting the middle term using the two factors found in step 2 above,  -4  and  -4

                    d2 - 4d - 4d - 16

Step-4 : Add up the first 2 terms, pulling out like factors :

                   d • (d-4)

             Add up the last 2 terms, pulling out common factors :

                   4 • (d-4)

Step-5 : Add up the four terms of step 4 :

                   (d-4)  •  (d-4)

            Which is the desired factorization

  Multiply  (d-4)  by  (d-4)

The rule says : To multiply exponential expressions which have the same base, add up their exponents.

In our case, the common base is  (d-4)  and the exponents are :

         1 , as  (d-4)  is the same number as  (d-4)1

and   1 , as  (d-4)  is the same number as  (d-4)1

The product is therefore,  (d-4)(1+1) = (d-4)2

Please mark me brainlyest

7 0
3 years ago
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