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Kryger [21]
3 years ago
6

A 33-year-old tennis player with a history of biceps tendinitis experienced vague pain in the anterior region of her glenohumera

l joint. She said she had the sensation of popping during her third set. During the preliminary examination by her trainer, he noted tenderness over the intertubercular groove in the humerus, flexion and supination weakness of the forearm, and an abnormal bulge in the distal part of the anterior part of her arm. Radiographs of the shoulder and arm did not reveal skeletal abnormalities. Which of the following statements best describes the most likely cause of the symptoms and signs in this case?
A. Rupture of the tendon of the short head of the biceps.
B. Avulsion of the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula.
C. Chronic biceps tendinitis.
D. Rupture of the tendon of the long head of the biceps.
Health
1 answer:
mart [117]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. Rupture of the tendon of the short head of the biceps.

Explanation:

The above athlete shows symptoms from a ruptured tendon of the long head of the biceps. When a tendon ruptures, the person loses a great deal of strength in the arm and has difficulty turning the forearm tightly and even placing the palm upwards. They may experience sudden, sharp pain in the arm and elbows, hear arm cracks, muscle pain, bruising, and so on. Although some people can cope well with the long head tendon of the broken biceps, thanks to simple treatments that relieve symptoms, others will need repair surgery.

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