<span>25/28 is the probability of picking two or three white balls.
Given that there are only 8 balls in total and of those 8, 5 of them are blue, this problem can be turned around to "What's the probability of selecting 5 blue balls?" And then subtracting that result from 1.
There are a total of 6 ways of selecting all 5 blue balls. The only difference is when the single white ball is selected. The 6 ways are BBBBBW, BBBBWB, ..., WBBBBB. So let's calculate the probability of each of those 6.
5/8 * 4/7 * 3/6 * 2/5 * 1/4 * 3/3 +
5/8 * 4/7 * 3/6 * 2/5 * 3/4 * 1/3 +
5/8 * 4/7 * 3/6 * 3/5 * 2/4 * 1/3 +
5/8 * 4/7 * 3/6 * 3/5 * 2/4 * 1/3 +
5/8 * 3/7 * 4/6 * 3/5 * 2/4 * 1/3 +
3/8 * 5/7 * 4/6 * 3/5 * 2/4 * 1/3 = ?
If you look closely at each of the 6 lines, you'll realize that the numerator will always be the product of 5!3 and the denominator will be 3*4*5*6*7*8. So, let's simplify to
6*5!3/(3*4*5*6*7*8)
= 6*5*4*3*2*3/(3*4*5*6*7*8)
= 2*3/(7*8)
= 3/(7*4)
= 3/28
Now we just need to calculate 1 - 3/28 = 28/28 - 3/28 = 25/28</span>
Step-by-step explanation:
I will give you answer till tonight
Answer:
Identity (a) can be re-written as
which we already proven in another question, while for idenity (b)
step A is simply expressing each function in terms of sine and cosine.
step B is adding the terms on the LHS while multiplying the one on RHS.
step C is replacing the term on the numerator with the equivalent from the pithagorean identity 
Answer:
-i
Step-by-step explanation:
i^15
Divide the exponent by 4
15/4 = 3 r 3
Take the remainder and use as the exponent
i^3
We know that i^2 = -1
i^3 = i^2 *i
i^3 = -1*i
-i
Answer: AC = 7√3
tan 30° = 
=> 
Step-by-step explanation:
