Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
$2.15
Step-by-step explanation:
Since 3 Tomatoes cost $1.29
Then let's first find how much is 1 Tomatoes.
To do that we have to divide Cost by # of Tomatoes
3/1.29 = 0.43
Thus, 1 Tomatoes Cost 0.43
Now, the question is: How much will 5 tomatoes cost?
Therefore, 0.43 * 5 =2.15
Hence, 5 Tomatoes cost $2.15
[RevyBreeze]
Answer:
(x + [1/4])2 + (y - 1)2 = (97/16)
Step-by-step explanation:
(x + [1/4])2 + (y - 1)2 = (97/16)
