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ycow [4]
4 years ago
12

How to convert 264 yds/1 s to mi/day?

Mathematics
1 answer:
dusya [7]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

12,960\ \frac{miles}{day}

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

1\ mile=1,760\ yards

To convert yards to miles multiply by 1/1,760

1\ hour=3,600\ seconds

1\ day=24\ hours

so

(24)3,600=86,400

1\ day=86,400\ seconds

To convert seconds to day multiply by 1/86,400

In this problem we have

264\ \frac{yd}{sec} =264\ \frac{(1/1,760)}{(1/86,400)}=264\ (\frac{86,400}{1,760})=12,960\ \frac{miles}{day}

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Peyton is a sprinter who can run the 40-yard dash in 4.5 seconds. He converts his speed into miles per hour, as shown below. Whi
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This question is incomplete

Complete Question

Peyton is a sprinter who can run the 40-yard dash in 4.5 seconds. He converts his speed into miles per hour, as shown below.

Which ratio is incorrectly written?

40 yd/4.5 sec • 3 ft/1 yd • 5280ft/1 mile • 60 sec/1 min • 60 min/1 hr

Answer:

5280ft/1 mile is the incorrect ratio

Hence, 40-yard dash in 4.5 seconds = 18.2 miles per hour(mile/hr)

Step-by-step explanation:

We are to convert 40 yards per 45 seconds to Mile per hour.

We are given the following conversion ratios:

40 yd/4.5 sec • 3 ft/1 yd • 5280ft/1 mile • 60 sec/1 min • 60 min/1 hr

The incorrect ratio is 5280ft/1 mile .

It should have been written as 1 mile/5280 ft.

Hence,

40 yd/4.5 sec • 3 ft/1 yd • 1 mile/5280ft• 60 sec/1 min • 60 min/1 hr

= 432000mile/23700 hr

= 18.181818182 mile/hr

Approximately= 18.2mile/hr

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3 years ago
If I wanted to change the vertex of a quadratic function from (2,3) to (-1,6), what form would you use and what would you do to
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Afiqah,Johan anda Rizal received a sum of money in the ratio of 1:2:4.Afiqah and johan received a total of $240.How much money d
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If a game consists of picking a number from a bag of beans numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, and 5 and flipping a coin, which probabilities a
Semenov [28]

The true statement is (d) none of the above

<h3>Missing information</h3>

I. P(3 and tail)

II. P(even and head)

III .P(odd and head)​

<h3>How to determine the equivalent probabilities?</h3>

We start by calculating each probability

<u>I. P(3 and tail) </u>

There is only one 3 in the 5 numbers.

So:

P(3) = 1/5

The probability of a tail in a coin is:

P(Coin) = 1/2

So, we have:

P(3 and tail) = 1/5 * 1/2

P(3 and tail) = 1/10

<u>II. P(even and head) </u>

There are three even numbers in the 5 numbers.

So:

P(even) = 3/5

The probability of a head in a coin is:

P(head) = 1/2

So, we have:

P(even and head) = 3/5 * 1/2

P(even and head) = 3/10

<u>III .P(odd and head)​</u>

There are two odd numbers in the 5 numbers.

So:

P(odd) = 2/5

The probability of a head in a coin is:

P(head) = 1/2

So, we have:

P(odd and head) = 2/5 * 1/2

P(even and head) = 1/5

By comparing the results, none of the probabilities are equal.

Hence, the true statement is (d) none of the above

Read more about probability at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
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