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Vinvika [58]
4 years ago
13

Lance Brothers Enterprises acquired $720,000 of 3% bonds, dated July 1, on July 1, 2016, as a long-term investment. Management h

as the positive intent and ability to hold the bonds until maturity. The market interest rate (yield) was 4% for bonds of similar risk and maturity. Lance Brothers paid $600,000 for the investment in bonds and will receive interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31. Prepare the journal entries (a) to record Lance Brothers’ investment in the bonds on July 1, 2016, and (b) to record interest on December 31, 2016, at the effective (market) rate.
Business
2 answers:
stiv31 [10]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A) July 1, 2016, 3% bonds are acquired as long term investment.

Dr Investment in 3% bonds 720,000

    Cr Cash 600,000

    Cr Discount on investment in 3% bonds 120,000

B) December 31, 2016, interest earned from investment in 3% bonds.

Dr Cash 10,800

Dr Discount on investment in 3% bonds 1,200

    Cr Interest revenue 12,000

Explanation:

the bonds' face value is $720,000 but since the company paid only $600,000 for them, it means that it bought them at a discount price. Therefore, the discount, $720,000 - $600,000 = $120,000, must be recorded, and later amortized.

To calculate the amount of interest revenue that will be amortized as discount on investment:

(bonds' market price x market interest rate x 1/2) - (bonds' face value x coupon rate x 1/2) = ($600,000 x 4% x 1/2) - ($720,000 x 3% x 1/2) = $12,000 - $10,800 = $1,200

Artist 52 [7]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(a)

July 1, 2016

Dr. Investment in Bonds $720,000

Cr. Discount on Bonds   $120,000

Cr. Cash                           $600,000

(b)

December 31, 2016

Dr. Cash                           $10,800

Dr. Discount on Bonds   $1200

Cr. Interest Income         $12,000

Explanation:

Investment in the bonds with intention to hold the bond until maturity is classified as the fixed investment and reported in the fixed assets section of the balance sheet.

When the bond is purchased below the face value of the bond, it is issued on discount by the issuer. This discount will be recorded and amortized over the bond life to maturity. Amortized discount will be added to the interest received amount to adjust this value in interest income.

Interest Received = Face value x Coupon rate x 6/12 = $720,000 x 3% x 6/12 = $10,800 semiannually

Interest income = Carrying Balance of Bond x market Rate x 6/12 = $600,000 x 4% x 6/12 = $12,000 semiannually

Now we will calculate the difference between the interest received and interest income to determine the value of discount amortized.

Amortized Discount = $12,000 - $10,800 = $1,200

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Resource Room prints custom training material for corporations. The business was started January 1, 2017. The company uses a nor
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

Budgeted Overhead Cost          266,000          

Budgeted Labor Cost                   190,000          

Recovery rate                       =266000/190000          

Recovery rate per labor cost     1.40          

Actual Material                             158,000          

Actual labor                                       175,000          

WIP closing                         Material    Labor          

Job 11                                4,720    5,700          

Job 12                                 5,090    6,900          

Total                                  9,810    12,600          

Transfer to Finished= Total-WIP            

Actual Material                 148,190          

Actual labor                         162,400          

Category                    Finished    WIP           Total        

Material                             148,190     9,810          158,000        

Labor                             162,400     12,600   175,000        

Overhead-Recovered      227,360      17,640     245,000

@ 140% of labor        

Balance before                537,950       40,050     578,000

adjustment to overhead

under-allocation        

Option 1-Underallocated     2,200                                     2,200  

overhead (247200-245000)

     

Balance after adjusting      540,150       40,050     580,200

overhead under-allocation        

Option 2-Underallocated        2,042           158      2,200

overhead in overhead allocated rate

       

2200*227360/245000            

2200*17640/245000            

Balance before adjustment          537,950          40,050     578,000

to overhead under-allocation        

Balance after adjusting                 539,992          40,208     580,200  

overhead under-allocation          

g. the option 2 will be chosen because a careful look at the underallocated overhead is similar to 2017 so the charge should be levied on all activity

Explanation:

Budgeted Overhead Cost          266,000          

Budgeted Labor Cost                   190,000          

Recovery rate                       =266000/190000          

Recovery rate per labor cost     1.40          

Actual Material                             158,000          

Actual labor                                       175,000          

WIP closing                         Material    Labor          

Job 11                                4,720    5,700          

Job 12                                 5,090    6,900          

Total                                  9,810    12,600          

Transfer to Finished= Total-WIP            

Actual Material                 148,190          

Actual labor                         162,400          

Category                    Finished    WIP           Total        

Material                             148,190     9,810          158,000        

Labor                             162,400     12,600   175,000        

Overhead-Recovered      227,360      17,640     245,000

@ 140% of labor        

Balance before                537,950       40,050     578,000

adjustment to overhead

under-allocation        

Option 1-Underallocated     2,200                                     2,200  

overhead (247200-245000)

     

Balance after adjusting      540,150       40,050     580,200

overhead under-allocation        

Option 2-Underallocated        2,042           158      2,200

overhead in overhead allocated rate

       

2200*227360/245000            

2200*17640/245000            

Balance before adjustment          537,950          40,050     578,000

to overhead under-allocation        

Balance after adjusting                 539,992          40,208     580,200  

overhead under-allocation          

g. the option 2 will be chosen because a careful look at the underallocated overhead is similar to 2017 so the charge should be levied on all activity

3 0
3 years ago
Hamasaki Company owns 30% of CDW Corp. stock and has significant influence. Hamasaki received $6,500 in cash dividends from its
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Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Account Title Debit Credit

Cash 6500

Investment in CDW Corp. 6500

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3 years ago
If customer 2 has a service time of 1.6, and if customer 3 has an interarrival time of 1.1 and a service time of 2.3, when will
Ivan
Your answer should be: "There is not enough information to answer." Hope I helped! :)
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3 years ago
Your firm (an Australian firm) makes a sale to a Japanese customer.  The sale price is 200 million Japanese Yen payable in exact
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

An Australian Firm Selling to a Japanese Customer

a) Direct Quote of the Exchange Rate between Australian Dollar and Japanese Yen:

A$ 1 = ¥90

Meaning 1 Australian Dollar = 90 Japanese Yen.

Therefore, the price of the goods would be A$ 2,222,222.22222 (¥200 million)/ ¥90

b)Theoretical Current Forward Exchange Rate, quoted in terms of JPY/AUD for delivery in three months:

= Spot Rate x (1 + Japanese Interest Rate) / (1 + Australian Interest Rate) x 360/90

= ¥90 x (1 +0.005) / (1 +0.03) x 360/90 = ¥90 x 1.005/1.03 x 360/90

= ¥351.26214 =A$1

c) The Australian firm can take advantage of any decreases in the exchange rate and also ensure that it receives at least Australian $2 million by entering into a Currency Forwards Contract.

d) If the spot exchange rate in 3 month's time is:

(i) AUD/JPY=150, the outcome of the hedging with a Currency Forwards Contract to get at least A$ 2 million would be the gain of:

Forward Exchange outcome in Australian Dollars = ¥200 million/ ¥150 =

A$ 1,333,333.33333

Hedging outcome minus Forward Exchange outcome

A$2 million - A$ 1,333,333.33333 = A$666,666.66667

(ii) AUD/JPY = 50, the outcome of the hedging with a Currency Forwards Contract to get at least A$ 2 million would be the loss of:

Forward  Exchange outcome =  in Australian Dollars = ¥200 million/ ¥50 =

A$4 million

Hedging outcome minus Forward Exchange outcome

A$2 million - $4 million = -A$2million

Explanation:

a) Currency forwards contracts and future contracts are used to hedge the currency risk. For example, a company expecting to receive  ¥200 million in 90 days, can enter into a forward contract to deliver the  ¥200 million and receive equivalent Australian dollars in 90 days at an exchange rate specified today.

b) If A$ 1 = ¥90

Therefore, the price of the goods would be A$ 2,222,222.22222 (¥200 million)/ ¥90 in Australian Dollars.

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On January 15, 2021, Bella Vista Company enters into a contract to build custom equipment for ABC Carpet Company. The contract s
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