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Cerrena [4.2K]
3 years ago
10

On January 1, 2020, Tamarisk Corporation issued $700,000 of 9% bonds, due in 8 years. The bonds were issued for $740,784, and pa

y interest each July 1 and January 1. The effective-interest rate is 8%.
Required:
1. Prepare the company’s journal entries for (a) the January 1 issuance, (b) the July 1 interest payment, and (c) the December 31 adjusting entry. Tamarisk uses the effective-interest method. (Round intermediate calculations to 6 decimal places, e.g. 1.251247 and final answer to 0 decimal places, e.g. 38,548. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.
Business
1 answer:
EleoNora [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Cash   740,783 debit

  Bonds payable    700,000 credit

  Premium ob BP      40,783 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 29,631.32 debit

premium on BP      1,868.68 debit

         cash                     31,500  credit

--to reocrd first interest payment--

Interest expense 29,556.57 debit

premium on BP      1,943.43 debit

     interest payable          31,500  credit

--to record accrued interest at year-end on BP--

Explanation:

procceds                      740,783

face value                <u>     700,000    </u>

premium on bonds payable 40,783

When comparing, the firm received more than the face value hence, there is a premium on the bonds as the coupon payment are above the market rate.

Now, the interest will be calculate as follow:

carrying value x market rate:

740,783 x 0.08/2 = 29,631.32 interest expense

cash outlay:

700,000 x 0.09/2 = 31,500

amortization on premium (difference) 1,868.68

new carrying value: 740,783 - 1,868,68 = 738,914

second payment accrual:

738,914 x 0.04 = 29,556.57

cash outlay                  31500

amortization    1,943.43

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The first question to answer, is  what is the present value of the annuity of the loan and then based on that the total interest can be calculated.

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