Answer:
1 year rate 2 year from now = 12% (Approx)
Explanation:
Given:
1-year rate = 8%
2-year rate = 9%
3-year rate = 10%
Computation:
According to Pure Expectations Hypothesis,
(1 + 3-year rate)³ = (1 + 2-year rate)² (1 + 1 year rate 2 year from now)
(1.10)³ = (1 + 1.09)²(1 + 1 year rate 2 year from now)
1.331 = 1.1881 (1 + 1 year rate 2 year from now)
(1 + 1 year rate 2 year from now) = 1.12
1 year rate 2 year from now = 0.12
1 year rate 2 year from now = 12% (Approx)
Answer:
Option (E) is correct.
Explanation:
The opportunity cost refers to the benefits that are sacrificed by choosing some other alternative.
In our case, there are two restaurants as follows:
One is 2 miles away from home with higher prices
Second one is 15 miles away from home with lower prices
But Melissa chooses the first one by comparing the opportunity cost associated with each option relative to the other option.
This is because of the higher opportunity cost associated with second restaurant offsets the higher monetary cost of the first restaurant.
Answer:
yoo my jym teacher name is mr haynes
Explanation:
omgirwkms if u can read that u need a hug
Answer:
d) relative to others instead of against performance standards.
Explanation:
Contrast error is one that occurs during performance rating where a person is not rated objectively, but against previous people who performed good or badly.
The person's ratings is affected negatively or positively.
A person that performs well subconsciously sets a benchmark in the mind of the rater, and he now rates future participants based on this benchmark and not on performance standards that have been set.
Answer:
Option D is the correct option
Explanation:
To find the optimal fund to combine with risk free rate of return, we will use Coefficient of variation,
Coefficient of variation(CoV) = Standard Deviation/Expected Return
CoV of Buckeye = 14%/20% = 0.7
CoV of Wolverine = 11%/12% = 0.9167
So, higher the CoV higher the risk, we will take Buckeye to combine with Risk Free Return.
Hence, Option A
- Required target return of portfolio = 22%
Risk Free return = 8%
Buckeye Return = 20%
Let the weight of Buckeye be X ,& weight of risk free be (1-X)
Required return = (WRF)*(RRF) + (WB)*(RB)
22 = (1-X)(8) + (X)(20)
22 = 8-8X + 20X
14 = 12X
X = 1.17
SO, weight of Buckeye is 1.17 or 117%
while weight of Risk free is -0.17 (1-1.17) or -17%
Hence, ans is OPTION D
