Answer:
(6, 1)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The answer would be B!
Step-by-step explanation:
In the chart if you divide the number of days over due to the cost of the fine, you get 5/2 every time. therefore, if y is the cost in cents and x is the days overdue, you would multiply x5/2 or y=5/2x, so your answer is B (y=5/2x).
hoped this helped :D
P( 1) = 1/6
P(2) = 1/6
Probability of 1 then 2 = 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36
Answer:
2x-3
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = 3x-1
g(x) = x+2
Find (f-g)(x), this means we need to subtract g from x.
(3x-1) - (x+2)
Subtract the like terms:
3x -x = 2x
-1 -2 = -3
Combine them to get 2x-3
