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Advocard [28]
3 years ago
13

BRAINLIESTTT ASAP! PLEASE HELP ME :)

Mathematics
2 answers:
WARRIOR [948]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

\displaystyle y = cot(x - \frac{π}{3}) + 2

Explanation:

<em>See</em><em> </em><em>above</em><em> </em><em>graph</em>

\displaystyle y = Acot(Bx + C) + D \\ \\ Amplitude → |A| \\ Period → \frac{π}{B} \\ Phase\:[Horisontal]\:Shift → \frac{C}{B} \\ Vertical\:Shift → D

* The cotangent <em>sinusoidal</em><em> </em><em>equation</em><em> </em>is the ONLY equation that will have a <em>C</em><em> </em>instead<em> </em>of <em>−</em><em>C</em>:

\displaystyle y = Asin(Bx - C) + D \\ y = Acos(Bx - C) + D \\ y = Atan(Bx - C) + D \\ y = Asec(Bx - C) + D \\ y = Acsc(Bx - C) + D \\ y = Acot(Bx + C) + D

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

SVEN [57.7K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

y = cot(x - ⅓π) + 2  

Step-by-step explanation:

The general equation for a cotangent function with the given properties is

y = Acot(Bx + C) + D, where

    A = the stretching factor

π/|B| = the period

    C = the phase shift (negative is to the right)

    D = the vertical shift

    A = 1

π/|B| = π, so1/|B| = 1 and B = 1

    C = -⅓π

    D = 2

The function is

y = cot(x - ⅓π) + 2

The figure below shows the graph of the function with the given parameters.

Note that the parent function y = cot(x) has the y-axis as an asymptote, so we can measure the phase shift by the movement of the asymptote π units to the right.

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Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

A, C

Step-by-step explanation:

Actually, those questions require us to develop those equations to derive into trigonometrical equations so that we can unveil them or not. Doing it only two alternatives, the other ones will not result in Trigonometrical Identities.

Examining

A) True

\frac{1-tan^{2}x}{2tanx} =\frac{1}{tan2x} \\ \frac{1-tan^{2}x}{2tanx} =\frac{1}{\frac{2tanx}{1-tan^{2}x}}\\ tan2x=\frac{1-tan^{2}x}{2tanx}

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7 0
3 years ago
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3 years ago
Quetion to represent each problem the sum of 15 and six times a number tea is 80 One what is the number
andrew-mc [135]

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Hope this Helps :)


6 0
3 years ago
Help ASAP please!!!
N76 [4]

Answer:

$450,000.

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>100% - 38% = 62% of the previous house value is the current house value after the 38% decrease.</h3><h3>We'll first convert 62% to a decimal by dividing by 100.</h3>

62% = 62 / 100 = 0.62

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