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taurus [48]
3 years ago
11

Factor completely 2x3 + 6x2 + 2x + 6.

Mathematics
2 answers:
katovenus [111]3 years ago
4 0

The answer is 2(x + 3)(x^2 + 1).

Steps:

2x^3 + 6x^2 + 2x + 6

2x^3 + 2x + 6x^2 + 6

2x(x^2 + 1) + 6(x^2 + 1)

(2x + 6)(x^2 + 1)

2(x + 3)(x^2 + 1)

Tanzania [10]3 years ago
4 0

2X^2(X+3)+2(X+3)

(2X^2+2)(X+3)

2(X^2+1)(X+3)

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Arrange them from highest to lowest, need help asap Ty
Viktor [21]

Answer:

113, 118, 151, 162, 167, 181, 206, 207, 228, 232, 232, 233, 233, 247, 248, 251, 253, 255, 256, 276

Step-by-step explanation:

Good luck man :)

7 0
2 years ago
Davis is buying a new car for $21,349.00.He plans to make a down payment of $3,000.00.If he's to make monthly payments of $352 f
nekit [7.7K]
He actually borrowed P=21349-3000=18349 (present value)
Assume the monthly interest is i.
then future value due to loan:
F1=P(1+i)^n=18349(1+i)^(5*12)=18349(1+i)^60
future value from monthly payment of A=352
F2=A((1+i)^n-1)/i=352((1+i)^60-1)/i
Since F1=F2 for the same loan, we have
18349(1+i)^60=352((1+i)^60-1)/i
Simplify notation by defining R=1+i, then
18349(R^60)-352(R^60-1)/(R-1)=0
Simplify further by multiplication by (R-1)
f(R)=18349*R^60*(R-1)-352(R^60-1)=0
Solve for R by trial and error, or by iteration to get R=1.004732
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12*(1.004732-1)=0.056784, or 5.678% approx.




8 0
2 years ago
*see attached image*
Leni [432]

Answer:

Sin, Cos, Tan and others are used to calculate the ratios of the sides of a right angled triangle by taking a certain angle as the angle of reference.

On the other hand, Sin‐¹, Cos‐¹ and Tan-¹ are used to find the reference angle used to calculate the ratio of sides.

For this question,

we need to find which option should used to calculate the angle the slide makes with the vertical support.

So the option will have to be either A, C or E.

here, the base is 2.81m and hypotenuse is 3.64m.

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4 0
2 years ago
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Consider the limit of rational function p(x)l q(x)
Helga [31]

#1

\\ \sf\bull\dashrightarrow {\displaystyle{\lim_{x\to c}}}\dfrac{p(x)}{q(x)}=\dfrac{0}{1}=0

  • The limit tends to 0
  • Hence c=0

\\ \sf\bull\dashrightarrow {\displaystyle{\lim_{x\to c}}}\dfrac{p(x)}{q(x)}=\dfrac{1}{1}=1

  • Here limit tends to 1
  • Hence c=1

\\ \sf\bull\dashrightarrow {\displaystyle{\lim_{x\to 0}}}\dfrac{p(x)}{q(x)}=\dfrac{1}{0}=\infty

  • Here x tends to infty.
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For the fourth one limit also tends to zero

8 0
2 years ago
Help please i’ll give extra points : )
nalin [4]

Answer:

rub the magnets with a stronger magnet then they would be more magnetized

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