Answer:
113, 118, 151, 162, 167, 181, 206, 207, 228, 232, 232, 233, 233, 247, 248, 251, 253, 255, 256, 276
Step-by-step explanation:
Good luck man :)
He actually borrowed P=21349-3000=18349 (present value)
Assume the monthly interest is i.
then future value due to loan:
F1=P(1+i)^n=18349(1+i)^(5*12)=18349(1+i)^60
future value from monthly payment of A=352
F2=A((1+i)^n-1)/i=352((1+i)^60-1)/i
Since F1=F2 for the same loan, we have
18349(1+i)^60=352((1+i)^60-1)/i
Simplify notation by defining R=1+i, then
18349(R^60)-352(R^60-1)/(R-1)=0
Simplify further by multiplication by (R-1)
f(R)=18349*R^60*(R-1)-352(R^60-1)=0
Solve for R by trial and error, or by iteration to get R=1.004732
The APR is therefore
12*(1.004732-1)=0.056784, or 5.678% approx.
Answer:
Sin, Cos, Tan and others are used to calculate the ratios of the sides of a right angled triangle by taking a certain angle as the angle of reference.
On the other hand, Sin‐¹, Cos‐¹ and Tan-¹ are used to find the reference angle used to calculate the ratio of sides.
For this question,
we need to find which option should used to calculate the angle the slide makes with the vertical support.
So the option will have to be either A, C or E.
here, the base is 2.81m and hypotenuse is 3.64m.
we know, Cos = base / hypotenuse
So the angle is given by Cos-¹(2.81/3.64)
Option C
#1
- The limit tends to 0
- Hence c=0
- Here limit tends to 1
- Hence c=1
- Here x tends to infty.
- c=infty
For the fourth one limit also tends to zero
Answer:
rub the magnets with a stronger magnet then they would be more magnetized
Explanation: If you rub a magnet with lets say some metal then that metal would be magnetized so if you where to rub those 2 magnets with a stronger magnet those magnetized would be magnetized even more than they already are
