All categories

3 years ago

A 500 kilogram marlin and a 20 kilogram salmon are swimming at the same velocity. How does the momentum of the two fish compare?

Physics

2 answers:

vladimir1956 [14]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

A. The marlin has more momentum.

ElenaW [278]3 years ago

6 0

Thank you for posting your question here at brainly. I hope the answer will help you. Feel free to ask more questions here.

Below are the choices that can be found from other sources:

A. The marlin has more momentum.

B. The salmon has more momentum. 

C. Both have the same momentum. 

D. Both have no momentum.

Velocity is speed. Momentum is the product of velocity and mass. Because the Marlin has a much greater mass that means that it's momentum would also be greater.

Lets look at this. momentum = mass x velocity 

lets say that velocity for both fish is at 2 meters per second 
Marlin : momentum = 500 x 2 = 1000 
Salmon : momentum = 20 x 2 = 40 

Therefore the answer is A

You might be interested in

How often do the earth's magnetic poles switch?

RSB [31]

Reversals are the rule, not the exception. Earth has settled in the last 20 million years into a pattern of a pole reversal about every 200,000 to 300,000 years, although it has been more than twice that long since the last reversal.

3 0

3 years ago

A pole-vaulter is nearly motionless as he clears the bar, set 4.2 m above the ground. He then falls onto a thick pad. The top of

Mandarinka [93]

initial height of the Pole - vaulter = 4.2 m

now when he reached the top of the pad his height is 80 cm

so the total displacement of the person will be = 4.2 - 0.8 = 3.4 m

now we can use kinematics to find the speed just before he touch the pad

$v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2 a d$

$v_f^2 - 0 = 2*9.8*3.4$

$v_f^2 = 66.64$

$v_f = 8.16 m/s$

now when he compressed on pad the distance after which he will stop is 50 cm

so now again using kinematics we can say

$v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2 a d$

$0 - 8.16^2 = 2*a*0.50$

$a = -66.64 m/s^2$

so it is acceleration by -66.64 m/s^2

5 0

4 years ago

Find the period of a wave with a frequency 40 kHz

Burka [1]

We know that frequency is an inverse value of time $f=\dfrac{1}{t}$ this implies that time is the inverse value of frequency $t=\dfrac{1}{f}$ .

Now since f is 40kHz, we can calculate period or duration for that matter time.

$t=\dfrac{1}{40\mathbf{kHz}}=0.000025\mathbf{s}=25\mathbf{\mu s}$

Hope this helps.

r3t40

4 0

3 years ago

two identical steel balls mounted on wooden posts initially have different amounts of charge, one with -14uC and the other with

GrogVix [38]

According to the Law of Conservation of Charge, the net charge remains constant. If both things have different charges, upon contact, they would share the charge equally. In this case, the total charge is -16μC. The final charge for each ball would be -8 μC.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

a body of mass 20kg initially at rest is subjected to a force of 40N for 1sec calculate the change in kinetic energy showing the

Tema [17]

Answer:

Change in KE is 40 J

Explanation:

Recall that the impulse exerted on an object equal the change of momentum of the object (ΔP), which in time is defined as the product of the force exerted on it times the time the force was acting:

Change in momentum is: ΔP = F * Δt

In our case,

ΔP = 40 N * 1 sec = 40 N s

Since the object was initially at rest, its initial momentum was zero, and the final momentum should then be 40 N s.

So, the initial KE was 0, and the final (KEf) can be calculated using:

KEf = 1 /(2 m) Pf^2 = 1 / (40) 40^2 = 40 J

So, the change in kinetic energy is:

KEf - KEi = 40 J - 0 j = 40 J

8 0

3 years ago