We know a or b != 0
but a-b==0 so both are the same unknown number
b/a must = 1
so
a/b is equivalent to b/a as a/b=1 as well.
So the last answer choice.
Answer:
the answer is x + 3
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
D Stanton encourages the audience to spread the word for their cause
Step-by-step explanation:
I just know I have done the test and it makes the most sense. :)
In an installment loan, a lender loans a borrower a principal amount P, on which the borrower will pay a yearly interest rate of i (as a fraction, e.g. a rate of 6% would correspond to i=0.06) for n years. The borrower pays a fixed amount M to the lender q times per year. At the end of the n years, the last payment by the borrower pays off the loan.
After k payments, the amount A still owed is
<span>A = P(1+[i/q])k - Mq([1+(i/q)]k-1)/i,
= (P-Mq/i)(1+[i/q])k + Mq/i.
</span>The amount of the fixed payment is determined by<span>M = Pi/[q(1-[1+(i/q)]-nq)].
</span>The amount of principal that can be paid off in n years is<span>P = M(1-[1+(i/q)]-nq)q/i.
</span>The number of years needed to pay off the loan isn = -log(1-[Pi/(Mq)])/(q log[1+(i/q)]).
The total amount paid by the borrower is Mnq, and the total amount of interest paid is<span>I = Mnq - P.</span>
