1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
rusak2 [61]
4 years ago
14

Help with math homework!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Natalka [10]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

93\frac{24}{27}

<u>Step-by-step:</u>

86 + 7 = 93

<u>The 24 denominator stays the same and just add the numerators:</u>

\frac{14}{24} + \frac{13}{24}

= 93\frac{24}{27}

*also 14 + 13 does not equal 24, its just closest to one of the choices*

vodka [1.7K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

94 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

https://www.hackmath.net/en/calculator/fraction?input=86+14%2F24+%2B+7+13%2F24&submit=Calculate

You might be interested in
Represent the following expression using an exponent
Andrew [12]
12^4 which is equal to 12 times itself 4 times
4 0
3 years ago
Course Task
RUDIKE [14]

Answer: gravity affect only the mass

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey can you contact me please

3 0
3 years ago
Show so that the expression of cos4A in term of SinA is 8Sin^4 - 8Sin^2A + 1​
Degger [83]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

L

H

S

=

cos

4

x

=

2

cos

2

(

2

x

)

−

1

=

2

(

cos

(

2

x

)

)

2

−

1

=

2

(

2

cos

2

x

−

1

)

2

−

1

=

2

(

4

cos

4

x

−

4

cos

2

x

+

1

)

−

1

=

8

cos

4

x

−

8

cos

2

x

+

2

−

1

=

8

cos

4

x

−

8

cos

2

x

+

1

=

R

H

S

Again

L

H

S

=

cos

4

x

=

2

cos

2

(

2

x

)

−

1

=

2

(

1

−

2

sin

2

x

)

)

2

−

1

=

2

(

1

−

4

sin

2

x

+

4

sin

4

x

)

−

1

=

2

−

8

sin

2

x

+

8

sin

4

x

−

1

=

8

sin

4

x

−

8

sin

2

x

+

1

=

R

H

S

sin

2

x

+

cos

2

x

=

1

cos

2

x

=

1

−

sin

2

x

substitute in the equation as follows

8

cos

4

x

−

8

cos

2

x

+

1

=

8

cos

2

x

(

cos

2

x

−

1

)

+

1

=

8

(

1

−

sin

2

x

)

(

1

−

sin

2

x

−

1

)

+

1

=

8

(

1

−

sin

2

x

)

(

−

sin

2

x

)

+

1

=

8

sin

4

x

−

8

sin

2

x

+

1

5 0
3 years ago
For a certain​ candy, 20​% of the pieces are​ yellow, 15​% are​ red, 20​% are​ blue, 20​% are​ green, and the rest are brown. ​a
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question we are given the percentages of each of the types of candies in the bag except for brown. Since the sum of all the percentages equals 75% and brown is the remaining percent then we can calculate that brown is (100-75 = 25%) 25% of the bag. Now we can show the probabilities of getting a certain type of candy by placing the percentages over the total percentage (100%).

  • Brown: \frac{25}{100}
  • Yellow or Blue: \frac{20}{100} +\frac{20}{100} = \frac{40}{100}  ....add the numerators
  • Not Green:  \frac{80}{100}.... since the sum of all the rest is 80%
  • Stiped:  \frac{25}{100} .... there are 0 striped candies.

Assuming the <u><em>ratios/percentages</em></u> of the candies stay the same having an infinite amount of candy will not affect the probabilities. That being said in order to calculate consecutive probability of getting 3 of a certain type in a row we have to multiply the probabilities together. This is calculated by multiplying the numerators with numerators and denominators with denominators.

  • 3 Browns: \frac{25*25*25}{100*100*100} = \frac{15,625}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.5625}{100}

  • the 1st and 3rd are red while the middle is any. We multiply 15% * (total of all minus red which is 85%) * 15% like so.

\frac{15*85*15}{100*100*100} = \frac{19,125}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.9125}{100}

  • None are Yellow: multiply the percent of all minus yellow three times.

\frac{80*80*80}{100*100*100} = \frac{512,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{51.2}{100}

  • At least 1 green: multiply the percent of green by 100% twice, since the other two can by any

\frac{20*100*100}{100*100*100} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{20}{100}

4 0
3 years ago
Will mixes 1/4 gallon of milk and 1/2 gallon of chocolate syrup to make chocolate milk. Each serving is 1/16 gallon. How many se
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

12 servings!

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 equals 0.25 gallons, 1/2 gallons is 0.5, so Will will have a mix of 0.75 gallons. If each serving is 1/16 and 1/16 equals 0.0625, divide 0.75 by 0.0625 = 12 servings.

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Janice thinks that 20 hundredths is equivalent to 2 thousandths because 20 hundreds is equal to 2 thousands. Use words and a pla
    11·2 answers
  • Domain range function?
    5·1 answer
  • For every 24 minutes of television there are 6 minutes of commercials how many minutes of a commercial are there 1 hour and 36 m
    11·1 answer
  • Please help me! There are two pictures, please keep that in mind, long explanations not needed..
    5·1 answer
  • What is the value of the expression 25 ÷ 5 + (6 x 2) − 4?
    14·1 answer
  • 1. 5 Burgers and 3 orders of fries cost $34. 4 Burgers and 4 orders of fries cost $32. How much does each burger and each order
    5·1 answer
  • The actual distance between Chicago and Pittsburgh is 375 miles. If the scale on a map is 1 inch : 125 miles, what is the distan
    10·2 answers
  • ASAP WILL MARK BRAINLIEST
    14·1 answer
  • Write the phrase as an expression. 5 less than 8 An expression is ​
    14·1 answer
  • If a0 , then a/c___b/c
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!