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Marizza181 [45]
3 years ago
11

you hold a mug of hot chocolate to warm your hands. Which type of heat transfer are you demonstrating?

Physics
2 answers:
olasank [31]3 years ago
7 0

Explanation:

Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact. Whereas convection is the transfer of heat through the currents which generate by warming or cooling of liquids or gases.

On the other hand, radiation is the direct transfer of electromagnetic waves in the form of heat through the space.

Therefore, when you hold a mug of hot chocolate to warm your hands then due to the direct contact with the mug your hands get warmer.

Hence, this transfer of heat is through the process of conduction.

Sergio [31]3 years ago
6 0
<span>Some flows into your hands by conduction, some is lost to the surrounding air by convection</span>
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A dog runs 30 feet to the north then 5 feet to the south what is the displacement of the dog
Nuetrik [128]
To look for displacement, just draw a vector from your beginning stage to your last position and settle for the length of this line. So we begin by drawing a line to the north which is 30 ft, since it is north, the line is going up, then it move 5 ft to the south, so put a line going down, so we are in 25 ft, North so that would be the answer.
5 0
4 years ago
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Can you have zero displacement and nonzero average velocity? Zero displacement and nonzero velocity? Illustrate your answers on
Svetlanka [38]

a) Not possible

b) Yes, it's possible (see graph in attachment)

Explanation:

a)

The average velocity of a body is defined as the ratio between the displacement and the time elapsed:

v=\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta t}

where

\Delta x is the displacement

\Delta t is the time elapsed

In this problem, we want to have zero displacement and non-zero average velocity. From the equation above, we see that this is not possible. In fact, if the total displacement is zero,

\Delta x = 0

And therefore as a consequence,

v=0

which means that the average velocity is zero.

B)

Here we want to have zero displacement and non-zero velocity. In this case, it is possible: in fact, we are not talking  about average velocity, but we are talking about (instantaneous) velocity.

On a position-time graph, the instantaneous velocity is the slope of the graph. Look at the graph in attachment. We see that the position of the object first increases towards positive value, then it decreases (the object starts moving backward), then becomes negative, then it increases again until returning to the original position, x = 0.

In all of this, we notice that the total displacement of the object is zero:

\Delta x = 0

However, we notice that the instantaneous velocity of the object at the various instants is not zero, because the slope of the graph is not zero.

Learn more about average velocity:

brainly.com/question/8893949

brainly.com/question/5063905

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3 0
3 years ago
Fluid pressure changes with depth are assumed to be linear. Which statement best explains why this does not hold true for atmosp
ankoles [38]

Answer:

Explanation:

Pressure due to fluid is directly proportional to the depth of fluid, density of the fluid and the value of acceleration due to gravity.

P = h d g

Where, h is the depth, d be the density and g be the acceleration due to gravity.

If we talk about teh atmospheric pressure, the density of air goes on decreasing as we go up and up. o we cannot say that it is directly depends only on the depth of air, it also depends on the changing density of air.

4 0
3 years ago
HELP PLEASE<br><br> Fill in the blank:<br> The ? of water is 1 g/cm3.
ololo11 [35]
I think it’s density
3 0
3 years ago
A length of copper wire has a resistance 44 Ω. The wire is cut into three pieces of equal length, which are then connected as pa
WINSTONCH [101]

Answer:

\frac{R}{1} = \frac{44}{9}\ohm

Explanation:

Let us imagine that there are three wire of length equal length having equal resistances each of 44/3 Ω

Now connect these wires in parallel to so that their equivalent resistance is R.

then

\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}

\frac{1}{R} = \frac{3}{44}+\frac{3}{44}+\frac{3}{44}

\frac{1}{R} = \frac{9}{44}

⇒\frac{R}{1} = \frac{44}{9}\ohm

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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