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4 years ago

7.There is no gain in mechanical advantage in a single fixed pulley. En

Physics

1 answer:

AlexFokin [52]4 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The answer to this question can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

Advantage:

The load can be raised with one fixed pulley by adjusting the shifting pressure path.
Its a fixed input pulley doesn't even have a mechanical advantage, the movement is larger than for the load.
It is preferable to use because the pulley must not be moved up or down.
It gains the measurement of just an increase in output power-to-input force ratio.

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If the weight of a submerged object is equal to the buoyant force, what net force acts upon the object?

Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

The weight is acting downwards where as the buoyant force acting upwards (opposite) direction with equal amount of force. so the opposite forces cancel out each other (because of the force amount being equal) and no net force is acting on the object.

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7 0

3 years ago

Consider a loop of wire with a resistor. In the same plane, (with switch S closed) a long wire has a current I flowing from left

Ulleksa [173]

Solution :

The given figure is a loop of a wire with a resistor.

When the switch S is closed for long time and is suddenly opened, the direction of the induced current can be find out by using the rule of right hand screw. According to the right hand screw rule, the direction of the magnetic field at the loop is in the direction that points outwards. The strength of the current rapidly decreases as it is switch off and the magnetic flux that is linked with the loop wire will also decrease.

According to the Lenz's law, the direction of the induced current must be such $\text{that it opposes}$ the decrease in the magnetic flux. It means the direction of the magnetic field must be outwards and also normal to the plane of the screen. The direction of the induced anti clockwise or from right to left in the resistance.

6 0

3 years ago

If you are sitting in the back seat of a car that makes a hard left turn, you will feel pushed toward the right side of the car.

Sonja [21]

Answer:

Inertia

Explanation:

Your body is naturally resisting turning left, as it wants to continue straight. So if feels like you are going right.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A disk 7.90 cm in radius rotates at a constant rate of 1 190 rev/min about its central axis. (a) Determine its angular speed. 12

Tanya [424]

Answer:

$124.62\ \text{rad/s}$

$3.71\ \text{m/s}$

$1.23\ \text{km/s}^2$

$20.28\ \text{m}$

Explanation:

r = Radius of disk = 7.9 cm

N = Number of revolution per minute = 1190 rev/minute

Angular speed is given by

$\omega=N\dfrac{2\pi}{60}\\\Rightarrow \omega=1190\times \dfrac{2\pi}{60}\\\Rightarrow \omega=124.62\ \text{rad/s}$

The angular speed is $124.62\ \text{rad/s}$

r = 2.98 cm

Tangential speed is given by

$v=r\omega\\\Rightarrow v=2.98\times 10^{-2}\times 124.62\\\Rightarrow v=3.71\ \text{m/s}$

Tangential speed at the required point is $3.71\ \text{m/s}$

Radial acceleration is given by

$a=\omega^2r\\\Rightarrow a=124.62^2\times 7.9\times 10^{-2}\\\Rightarrow a=1226.88\approx 1.23\ \text{km/s}^2$

The radial acceleration is $1.23\ \text{km/s}^2$ .

t = Time = 2.06 s

Distance traveled is given by

$d=vt\\\Rightarrow d=\omega rt\\\Rightarrow d=124.62\times 7.9\times 10^{-2}\times 2.06\\\Rightarrow d=20.28\ \text{m}$

The total distance a point on the rim moves in the required time is $20.28\ \text{m}$ .

8 0

3 years ago

A ball has a mass of 1.5kg and is thrown straight up with a speed of 60m/s, what is the ball’s momentum:

madam [21]

Answer:

Assumption: the air resistance on this ball is negligible. Take $g = 10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ .

a. The momentum of the ball would be approximately $60\;\rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ two seconds after it is tossed into the air.

b. The momentum of the ball would be approximately $\rm \left(-45\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\right)$ three seconds after it reaches the highest point (assuming that it didn't hit the ground.) This momentum is smaller than zero because it points downwards.

Explanation:

The momentum $p$ of an object is equal its mass $m$ times its velocity $v$ . That is: $\vec{p} = m \cdot \vec{v}$ .

Assume that the air resistance on this ball is negligible. If that's the case, then the ball would accelerate downwards towards the ground at a constant $g \approx -10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ . In other words, its velocity would become approximately $10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ more negative every second.

The initial velocity of the ball is $60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . After two seconds, its velocity would have become $60\;\rm m \cdot s^{-1} + 2\; \rm s \times \left(-10\;\rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right) = 40\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . The momentum of the ball at that time would be around $p = m \cdot v \approx 60\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ .

When the ball is at the highest point of its trajectory, the velocity of the ball would be zero. However, the ball would continue to accelerate downwards towards the ground at a constant $g \approx -10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ . That's how the ball's velocity becomes negative.

After three more seconds, the velocity of the ball would be $0\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} + 3\; \rm s \times \left(-10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}\right) = -30 \; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . Accordingly, the ball's momentum at that moment would be $p = m \cdot v \approx \left(-45\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\right)$ .

3 0

3 years ago