Answer:
$1,073.60
Explanation:
bond's current price = PV of face value + PV of coupons
maturity = 10 years
face value = $1,000
coupon rate = 7% annual
market rate = 6%
PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 6%)¹⁰ =$558.39
PV of coupons = coupon x annuity factor (10 years, 6%) = $70 x 7.3601 = $515.21
market value at issue date = $558.39 + $515.21 = $1,073.60
since the bond's coupon rate was higher than the market rate, the bond was sold at a premium.
Answer:
d. willingness to pay of all buyers in the market.
Explanation:
The demand curve shows the relationship between the price of a good or service and the quantity demanded at a particular time.
Therefore, a demand curve reflects:
a. highest price buyers are willing to pay for each quantity.
b.quantity that each buyer will ultimately purchase.
c. value each buyer in the market places on the good.
With this in mind, what the demand curve does not reflect, with these in mind is a willingness to pay of all buyers in the market.
For lower income people:
The more the government puts towards health care would mean there would be a higher quality of life for low income areas allowing them to get access to needed healthcare for no cost to them.
For higher income people / corporate entities:
it would mean higher taxes on the 1% and 0.1% of the richer people and raising taxes on corporations such as higher taxes on dividends.
Summary:
For a SoL on one side to change another side would have to lose.
Answer:
Variable overhead efficiency variance= $544 favorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Variable overhead 0.90 hours $ 3.40 per hour
Actual output 4,400 units
Actual direct labor-hours 3,800 hours
<u>To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate
Variable overhead efficiency variance= (3,960 - 3,800)*3.4
Variable overhead efficiency variance= $544 favorable
Standard quantity= 4,400*0.9= 3,960
Answer: D. There was a one-way flow of wealth favoring the colonizers.
Explanation:
With the Colonists simply taking resources and not paying the colonies for it, there was a one way flow of wealth which favored them alone. Had the colonists paid for the goods and then processed them for resale (as developed countries do now), there would have been at least some sort of wealth flowing back to the colonies for the resources they possessed. The Colonists were essentially not paying for raw material inputs for production and simply reaped all the benefits after processing.